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AIPGMEE 2007

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1 AIPGMEE 2007 on Wed May 11, 2011 10:56 am

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Newbie
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AIPGMEE 2007

Anaesthesiology Mcqs

Question 48: Centrineuraxial (spinal or epidural) anaesthesia is contraindicated in all except ?
A) Platelets < 80,000
B) Patient on aspirin
C) Patient on oral anticoagulants
D) Patient on I.V. Heparin
Answer: B) Patient on aspirin

Question 52: A child undergoing surgical procedure, (on ventilator) anaesthetized with atracurium and propofol, wakes up with body pain 12 hours later (or develops seizures after 2 days). Cause of body pain is ?
A) adverse effect of propofol
B) accumulation of Laudanosine
Answer: B) accumulation of Laudanosine

Question 224: In Caudal block for infant which is Contraindicated ?
A) remifentanil
B) sufentanil
C) morphine
D) butorphanol
Answer: C) morphine

Anatomy Mcqs

1: All are true about the trigone of the urinary bladder except ?
A) Mucosa is loosely attached to the underlying musculature
B) Mucosa is smooth
C) It is lined by transitional epithelium
D) It is derived from the absorbed part of the mesonephric duct / It is a remnant of mesonephric duct opening into posterior urogenital sinus
Answer: A) Mucosa is loosely attached to the underlying musculature

2: Structures that pass from thorax to abdomen behind the diaphragm are all except ?
A) Azygous vein
B) Aorta
C) Thoracic duct
D) Greater splanchnic nerve
Answer: D) Greater splanchnic nerve

8: Movement of pronation & supination occur in all of the following joints except ?
A) Middle radio-ulnar joint
B) Superior radio-ulnar joint
C) Inferior radio-ulnar joint
D) Radio carpal joint
Answer: D) Radio carpal joint

54: The anatomical structure passing from left to right are all except ?
A) Left brachiocephalic vein
B) Hemiazygous vein
C) Left gonadal vein
D) Left renal vein
Answer: C) Left gonadal vein

67: True statement regarding Posterior cruciate ligament is ?
A) prevents posterior dislocation of tibia
B) intrasynovial
C) attached to lateral femoral condyle
D) relaxed in full flexion
Answer: A) prevents posterior dislocation of tibia

69: A typical cervical vertebra can be differentiated from thoracic vertebra by ?
A) Foramen transversarium
B) Trianglular vertebral canal
C) Heavy vertebral body
D) Superior facet on upper surface of body
Answer: A) Foramen transversarium

70: Most common site of morgagni hernia is ?
A) Left anterior
B) Right posterior
C) Right anterior
D) Left posterior
Answer: C) Right anterior

Meralgia parasthetica occurs due to the involvement of ?
A) Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
B) Medial cutaneous nerve
C) Sciatic nerve
D) Sural nerve
Answer: A) Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh

121: Supports of Uterus are all except (all of the following structures prevent prolapse of the uterus except) ?
A) Uterosarcal ligament
B) Broad ligament
C) Mackenrodt's ligament
D) Levator ani
Answer: B) Broad ligament

125: Nerve not involved in entrapment ?
A) Femoral
B) Median
C) Ulnar
D) Lateral cutaneous nerve
Answer: A) Femoral

156: Porto-systemic shunt is not seen in ?
A) Liver
B) Spleen
C) Anorectum
D) Gastroesophageal junction
Answer: B) Spleen

161: Which of these parts of vertebral canal will show concavity
A) Cervical
B) Thoracic
C) Sacral
D) Coccyx
Answer: A) Cervical

189: Posterior communicating artery is a branch of ?
A) Internal carotid
B) External carotid
C) Middle cerebral
Answer: A) Internal carotid

197: Which of this bears maximum force generated during mastication ?
A) Pterygomaxillary
B) Nasomaxillary
C) Zygomaxillary
Answer: C) Zygomaxillary

201: Which of the following is not a branch of the cavernous segment of internal carotid artery?
A) Meningeal branch
B) Ophthalmic artery
C) Hypophyseal branch
Answer: B) Ophthalmic artery

266: In a case of injury to male urethra below the perineal membrane, urine drains into ?
A) Deep perineal pouch
B) Superficial perineal pouch
Answer: B) Superficial perineal pouch

Biochemistry Mcqs

Question 94: Transport of Ascorbic acid to lens is done by ?
A) Myoinositol
B) Choline
C) Taurine
D) Na-K ATPase
Answer: A) Myoinositol

Question 112: Northern blot is used for analysis of ?
A) mRNA expression
B) DNA
C) Protein
Answer: A) mRNA expression

Question 140: All are true about proteoglycans except ?
A) Contains amino sugars
B) Contains small amounts of water
C) Forms structural elements in connective tissue
D) Chondroitin sulphate is an example
Answer: B) Contains small amounts of water

Question 150: Mucopolysaccharide hyaluronic acid is present in ?
A) Vitreous humour
B) Cornea
C) Blood vessels
D) Synovial fluid
Answer: A) Vitreous humour

Question 165: Dinitrophenol causes ?
A) Uncoupling of Electron Transport Chain and oxidative phosphorylation
Answer: A) Uncoupling of Electron Transport Chain and oxidative phosphorylation

Question 171: For protein purification and analysis all are used except ?
A) centrifugation
B) densitometry
C) electrophoresis
D) chromatography
Answer: B) densitometry

Question 180: Blackening of urine occurs in ?
A) Alkaptonuria
B) Phenylketonuria
C) Maple syrup urine disease
D) Isovaleric aciduria
Answer: A) Alkaptonuria

Question 227: Oxygen dependent killing is done through ?
A) NADPH Oxidase
B) Superoxide dismutase
C) Catalase
D) Glutathione peroxidase
Answer: A) NADPH Oxidase

Question 231: All are true for m-rna except ?
A) Capping helps in attachment of m-rna to 40s ribosome
B) In Eukaryotes is regulated by GTP to GDP transformation
C) The first Amino acid is Methionine
D) Synthesized from dna 3' - 5'
Answer: C) The first Amino acid is Methionine

Question 232: HMP shunt occurs in ?
A) Cytosol
B) Mitochondria
C) Endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: A) Cytosol

Question 233: LAC OPERON... ?
A) negative regulation
B) positive regulation
Answer: A) negative regulation

Question 234: HMP Shunt Oxidase phase generates ?
A) Ribose
B) NADPH
Answer: B) NADPH

Question 235: All of the following act on the nucleus via transcription factors ?
A) Insulin
B) Retinoid
C) Vitamin D
Answer: A) Insulin

Question 236: When urine is heated to 45'C a precipitate is formed. When further heated to 80'C the precipitate starts redissolving. The precipitate reforms on cooling. What is it ?
A) Albumin
B) Bence-Jones protein
Answer: B) Bence-Jones protein

Question 237: Regarding triacylglycerol metabolism in adipocytes all are true except ?
A) Storage form of lipids in body
B) Glycerol kinase
C) Metabolised by lipoprotein lipase
Answer: B) Glycerol kinase

Question 238: Metalloproteins are involved in ?
A) Degradation of extracellular proteins
Answer: A) Degradation of extracellular proteins

Question 241: Biotin is useful in ?
A) alpha-keto acid carboxylase deficiency
B) multiple carboxylase deficiency
Answer: B) multiple carboxylase deficiency

Question 242: Study of gene expression is called ?
A) Genomics
B) Proteonomics
Answer: A) Genomics

Question 290: All are true regarding Oxygenases except ?
A) Incorporates 1 atom of O2 molecule
B) Incorporates both the atoms of molecular O2
C) Required for reactions like hydroxylation
D) Carboxylation reaction
Answer: D) Carboxylation reaction

Community Medicine Mcqs

Question 16: True regarding BCG vaccina is ?
A) DANSIH 1331 strain
B) Distilled water is used as diluent
C) Spirit is used for cleaning the skin
Answer: A) DANSIH 1331 strain

Question 20: Results of a test were given as Very Satisfied, Satisfied, Dissatisfied & Very Dissatisfied. It represents ?
A) Nominal data
B) Ordinal data
C) Interval data
D) Ratio
Answer: B) Ordinal data

Question 35: True about cluster sampling is all except ?
A) Sample size same as simple random sampling
B) Rapid method of sampling
Answer: B) Rapid method of sampling

Question 46: The highest percentages of poly unsaturated fatty acids are present in ?
A) Ground nut oil
B) Palm oil
C) Margarine
D) Soyabean oil
Answer: D) Soyabean oil

Question 79: Which of the following diseases is not transmitted by lice ?
A) Relapsing fever
B) Q fever
C) Trench fever
D) Epidemic typhus
Answer: B) Q fever

Question 131: Case finding in RNTCP is based on ?
A) Sputum culture
B) Sputum microscopy
C) X-ray chest
D) Mantoux test
E) PCR
Answer: B) Sputum microscopy

Question 148: Which one of the following method is used for the estimation of chlorine demand of water ?
A) Chlorometer
B) Horrocks apparatus
C) Berkefield filter
D) Double pot method
Answer: B) Horrocks apparatus

Question 149: PQLI includes all except ?
A) Infant mortality rate
B) Life expectancy at 1 year
C) Literacy rate
D) Per capita Income
Answer: D) Per capita Income

Question 152: Universal immunization programme doesnt include ?
A) Tetanus toxoid
B) MMR
C) DPT
Answer: B) MMR

Question 175: Herd immunity, all are true except ?
A) Depends on clinical and subclinical cases
B) Influenced by immunization
C) Depends on presence of alternate host
D) Herd immunity is constant
Answer: D) Herd immunity is constant

Question 182: Breast milk differs from Cow's milk in that it has ?
A) More lactose
B) More proteins
C) More iron
Answer: A) More lactose

Question 190: What is analytical test you use for the study in which you
A) Student T test
B) Chi square test
C) Paired T test
D) Bland & altman analysis
Answer: B) Chi square test

Question 196: Smoking is associated with 85% more risk of developing carcinoma. It denotes ?
A) Relative risk
B) Absolute risk
C) Attributable risk
D) Odds ratio
Answer: C) Attributable risk

Question 202: All can be incinerated except ?
A) Human anatomical waste
B) Biotechnology waste
C) Solid waste
D) Cytotoxic drugs
E) Waste sharps
Answer: E) Waste sharps

Question 204: Impact and efficiency of iodine program impact can be given by ?
A) Goitre in pregnant women
B) Neonatal thyroxine levels
C) Urinary iodine
Answer: B) Neonatal thyroxine levels

Question 205: You have diagnosed a patient clinically as having SLE and ordered 6 tests out of which 4 tests have come positive and 2 are negative. To determine the probability of SLE at this point, you need to know ?
A) Prior probability of SLE, sensitivity and specificity of each test
B) Incidence of SLE and predictive value of each test
C) Incidence and prevalence of SLE
D) Relative risk of SLE in those patient
Answer: A) Prior probability of SLE, sensitivity and specificity of each test

Question 207: Direct standardization is used to compare the mortality rates between two countries. This is done because of differences in ?
A) Causes of death
B) Numerators
C) Age distributions
D) Denominators
Answer: C) Age distributions

Question 287: All of the following are measures carried out for erradication of neonatal tetanus except ?
A) Maternal TT immunization
B) 5 cleans practice
C) Administration of immunoglobulin to neonate
D) Administration of penicillin to all newborns
Answer: D) Administration of penicillin to all newborns

Question 294: Randomization is done to ?
A) remove selection bias
B) so that the groups are comparable
Answer: B) so that the groups are comparable


Dermatology Mcqs

Question 73: Pityriasis rosea, true is ?
A) Self limiting
B) Chronic relapsing
C) Life threatening infection
D) Caused by dermatophytes
Answer: A) Self limiting

Question 74: An infant ( or 3 year old child) with erythrematous lesions on cheek, extensor aspect of limbs, mother has history of asthma. Probable diagnosis is ?
A) Airborne contact dermatitis
B) Atopic dermatitis
C) Seborrhic dermatitis
D) Infantile eczematous dermatitis
Answer: B) Atopic dermatitis

Question 115: Tuberculide is seen in ?
A) Lupus vulgaris
B) Scrofulaceum
C) Lupus scrofilecium
Answer: C) Lupus scrofilecium

Question 179: Which of the following statements regarding Lepromin test is not true ?
A) It is negative in most of the children in first 6 months of life
B) It is a diagnostic test
C) Helps to classify leprosy
D) BCG vaccination converts lepra reaction from negative to positive
Answer: B) It is a diagnostic test


Embryology Mcqs

Question 90: Primordial germ cells are derived from ?
A) Ectoderm
B) Mesoderm
C) Endoderm
Answer: B) Mesoderm


Forensic Medicine & Toxicology Mcqs

Question 5: A patient presenting with history of abdominal pain, constipation. On examination he has blue line on gums. Treatment of choice is ?
A) Ca-EDTA
B) BAL
C) Desferroxamine
D) Penicillamine
Answer: A) Ca-EDTA

Question 85: Burtonian's line is seen in ?
A) Lead poisoning
B) Mercury poisoning
C) Phosphorus poisoning
D) Zinc poisoning
Answer: A) Lead poisoning

Question 91: Spalding's sign is seen in ?
A) Mummification
B) Maceration
C) Saponification
D) Putrifaction
Answer: B) Maceration

Question 92: Acrodynia is seen in ?
A) Phenol poisoning
B) Mercury poisoning
C) Carbolic acid poisoning
D) Lead / Arsenic poisoning
Answer: B) Mercury poisoning

Question 93: Mercury causes nephrotoxicity by involving ?
A) PCT
B) DCT
C) Loop of Henle
D) Collecting duct
Answer: A) PCT

Question 136: Antidote for Mushroom poisoning is ?
A) Neostigmine
B) Physostigmine
C) Amyl nitrate
D) Atropine
Answer: D) Atropine

Question 139: Which is not an aryl phosphate OP (organophosphate) ?
A) Parathion
B) Malathion
C) tik20
D) Follidol
Answer: B) Malathion


Gynaecology Mcqs

(Single Best Answer) Question 7: Commonest cause of post menopausal bleeding is ?
A) Ca endometrium
B) Ca cervix
C) Ca vulva
Answer: B) Ca cervix

Question 43: Which IUCD lasts for 10 years ?
A) Nova T
B) Cu T 380A
C) Multiload Cu 250
Answer: B) Cu T 380A

Question 44: OCPs are useful in all except ?
A) Endometriosis
B) Ca Endometrium
C) Ca Breast
Answer: C) Ca Breast

Question 45: Fibroid causes all of the following except ?
A) Menstrual irregularities
B) Infertility
C) Abdominal Mass
D) Amenorrhoea
Answer: D) Amenorrhoea

Question 87: Serotype of HPV associated with invasive carcinoma cervix ?
A) HPV 16
B) HPV 18
C) HPV 32
D) HPV 36
Answer: A) HPV 16

Question 88: Technique of aspiration of sperm from testis used in ART ?
A) TESA
B) MESA
C) GIFT
D) ZIFT
Answer: A) TESA

Question 117: Most common ovarian tumor to undergo torsion ?
A) Dysgerminoma
B) Benign Cystic Teratoma
C) Endometriod cyst
D) Serous / Mucinous Cystadenoma
Answer: B) Benign Cystic Teratoma

Question 120: HRT is helpful in all of the following except ?
A) Vaginal atrophy
B) Flushing
C) Osteoporosis
D) Coronary Heart Disease
Answer: D) Coronary Heart Disease

Question 168: Persistent GTT evolves to ?
A) Choriocarcinoma
B) Invasive
Answer: A) Choriocarcinoma

Question 209: Antihormone used in infertility ?
A) Clomiphene citrate
B) Tamoxifen
Answer: A) Clomiphene citrate

Question 299: Most common site of metastasis of choriocarcinoma ?
A) Lung
B) Vagina
Answer: A) Lung


Medicine Mcqs

Question 4: Filgrastim is used in the treatment of ?
A) Neutropenia
B) Filaria
C) Malaria
Answer: A) Neutropenia

Question 25: Leprosy affects all except ?
A) Uterus
B) Ovary
C) Eyes
D) Nerves
Answer: A) Uterus

Question 32: Which of the following investigations is least useful in multiple myeloma ?
A) Urine proteins
B) Xray
C) Bone marrow biopsy
D) Bone scan
Answer: D) Bone scan

Question 33: Cat eye syndrome is associated with ?
A) Partial trisomy 21
B) Partial trisomy 18
C) Partial trisomy 13
D) Partial trisomy 22
Answer: D) Partial trisomy 22

Question 34: Millard Gubler Syndrome all are true except ?
A) 5th nerve palsy
B) 6th nerve palsy
C) 7th nerve palsy
D) Contralateral hemiplegia
Answer: A) 5th nerve palsy

Question 36: Dubin Johnson syndrome, test used is ?
A) Gamma Glutamyl Transferase
B) Bromosulphthalein test
C) Hippurate test
D) Transaminase
Answer: B) Bromosulphthalein test

Question 39: CSF picture in Tubercular meningitis ?
A) increased protein, increased sugars, increased lymphocytes
B) increased protein, decreased sugars, increased lymphocytes
C) decreased protein, increased sugars, increased lymphocytes
D) decreased protein, decreased sugars, increased lymphocytes
Answer: B) increased protein, decreased sugars, increased lymphocytes

Question 40: Findings in DIC include all except ?
A) increased fibrinogen, increased antithrombin III, increased thrombin-antithrombin complexes
B) increased FDP, decreased PT, increased antithrombin III
C) increased FDP, prolonged PT, increased thrombin-antithrombin complexes
D) increased FDP, prolonged PT, reduced platelets
Answer: B) increased FDP, decreased PT, increased antithrombin III

Question 47: True regarding Endemic Typhus is ?
A) Man is the only reservoir
B) Flea is a vector
C) Rash develops into an eschar
D) Culture is a diagnostic modality
Answer: B) Flea is a vector

Question 49: A patient is in septicaemic shock. Which vassopressor drug is preferred ?
A) Epinephrine
B) Norepinephrine
C) Phenylephrine
D) Ephedrine
Answer: B) Norepinephrine

Question 55: Which of the following diseases cause decreased VC and decreased TLC ?
A) Sarcoidosis
B) Cystic fibrosis
C) Bronchial asthma
D) Bronchiectasis
Answer: A) Sarcoidosis

Question 60: A young man with chronic small bowel diarrhoea, duodenal biopsy shows IgA anti-human tissue transglutimase (TTG), and IgA anti-endomysial antibodies. Which of the following is the next step ?
A) Rectal biopsy
B) A trial of gluten free diet
C) Colonoscopy
Answer: B) A trial of gluten free diet

Question 81: Chronic carriers are seen in all except ?
A) Measles
B) Typhoid
C) Hepatitis B
D) Gonorrhoea
Answer: A) Measles

Question 83: A patient admitted to an ICU is on central venous line for the last one week. He is on Ceftazidime and Amikacin. After 7 days of antibiotics he develops a spike of fever and his blood culture is positive for gram positive cocci in chains, which are catalase negative. Following this, vancomycin was restarted but the culture remained positive for the same organism even after 2 weeks of therapy. The most likely orgainsm causing the infection is ?
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Viridans streptococci
C) Enterococcus faecalis
D) Coagulase positive staphylococcus
Answer: C) Enterococcus faecalis

Question 84: Brucella is transmitted by all of the following means except ?
A) Man to man transmission
B) Through placenta of animals
C) Aerosol
D) Eating uncooked food
Answer: A) Man to man transmission

Question 95: All are seen in raised ICT except ?
A) Headache
B) Visual blurring
C) Abducens palsy
D) Paraparesis / Hemiplegia
E) Papilloedema
Answer: D) Paraparesis / Hemiplegia

Question 96: Mycosis fungoides, which is not true ?
A) It is the most common form of cutaneous lymphoma
B) Pautrier's Microabscess
C) Indolent course and easily amendable to treatment
D) Erythroderma seen and spreads to peripheral circulation
Answer: C) Indolent course and easily amendable to treatment

Question 108: An elderly male (70 year old) patient presented with high grade fever, chest pain and dry cough, sputum cultured on charcoal yeast medium, the organism is ?
A) H. influenzae
B) Moraxella catarrhalis
C) Legionella
D) Burkholderia capacia
Answer: C) Legionella

Question 109: A person working in an abattoir presented with pustule on hand, which turned into ulcer. Which will best help in the demonstration of organisms from smear made from the pustule ?
A) Trichrome methylene blue
B) Carbol Fuschin
C) Acid Fast Stain
D) Calcoflour White
E) Geimsa
Answer: A) Trichrome methylene blue

Question 119: All the drugs can be used in treatment of H. pylori infection except ?
A) Omeprazole
B) Amoxycillin
C) Metronidazole
D) Oxytetracycline
E) Bismuth
Answer: D) Oxytetracycline

Question 134: A person with previously normal Hb with sudden hemorrhage will have all except ?
A) Recticulocytosis
B) High PCV
C) Low MCV
D) Thrombocytosis
Answer: A) Recticulocytosis

Question 135: Drug used in obesity are all except ?
A) Sibutramine
B) Orlistat
C) Olestra
D) Neuropeptide y analogue
Answer: D) Neuropeptide y analogue

Question 138: Seizure & jitteriness can be differentiated on all except ?
A) Gaze
B) Autonomic Disturbance
C) Sensitivity to stimulus
D) Frequency of seizure
Answer: D) Frequency of seizure

Question 151: All are true about Benedict's syndrome except ?
A) Cause 3rd cranial nerve palsy
B) involvement of penetrating branches of basilar artery
C) involvement of pons
D) Contralateral hemiplegia
Answer: C) involvement of pons

Question 155: Least common complication of measles ?
A) SSPE
B) Diarrhoea
C) Pneumonia
D) Otitis media
Answer: A) SSPE

Question 162: Investigation of choice to diagnose amyloidosis ?
A) Rectal biopsy
Answer: A) Rectal biopsy

Question 166: Cherry red spot in all except ?
A) Neimann pick disease
B) Krabbe disease
C) Multiple sulfatase deficiency
D) Type 2 glycogenesis
Answer: B) Krabbe disease

Question 176: In MEN 1, most common is ?
A) Insulinoma
B) Gastrinoma
C) Glucagonoma
Answer: B) Gastrinoma

Question 183: Basal ganglia calcification is not seen in ?
A) Birth Anoxia
B) Hypoparathyroidism
C) Wilsons disease
Answer: A) Birth Anoxia

Question 184: ECG manifestations of hypokalemia include ?
A) Tall t waves
B) PR prolongation with ST depression
C) Flattening of P wave
D) Broard QRS
Answer: B) PR prolongation with ST depression

Question 185: Treatment of acute neuritis in borderline tuberculoid leprosy is ?
A) MDT
B) MDT + Steroid
C) Steroid
D) MDT + Thalidomide
Answer: B) MDT + Steroid

Question 194: BMI of Obese ?
A) 20
B) 30
C) 40
D) 50
Answer: B) 30

Question 213: Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults is ?
A) Lupus nephritis
B) Diabetes
C) Amyloid
D) Drugs
Answer: B) Diabetes

Question 215: All of the following cause hypophosphatemia except ?
A) Diabetic ketoacidosis
B) Acute renal failure
C) Hyperalimentation
D) Respiratory Alkalosis
Answer: B) Acute renal failure

Question 217: Drug induced lupus erythematosus is most frequently associated with ?
A) anti-histone antibodies
B) anti-ro antibodies
C) anti-centromere antibodies
D) anti-mitochondrial antibodies
Answer: A) anti-histone antibodies

Question 218: Which is not a feature of pontine stroke ?
A) Quadriparesis
B) Pin point pupil
C) Palatal palsy
D) Hyperpyrexia
Answer: C) Palatal palsy

Question 219: Polycythemia is caused by all except ?
A) Cerebellar hemangioblastoma
B) Hypernephroma
C) Pancreatic carcinoma
D) Hepatoma
Answer: C) Pancreatic carcinoma

Question 220: 30 years old lady, atrial fibrillation with Mitral Regurgitation, comes in with syncope and regular pulse of 55 / min. Most probable cause is ?
A) Digoxin toxicity
B) Cerebral infarct
Answer: A) Digoxin toxicity

Question 221: Burrowing ulcer is caused by ?
A) microaerophilic streptococcus
B) streptococcus viridans
C) streptococcus pyogenes
D) peptostreptococci
Answer: A) microaerophilic streptococcus

Question 226: A patient has H. pylori infection. He recieved drugs after that. H. pylori is detected by ?
A) Rapid urease test
B) Urea breath test
C) Endoscopic biopsy
Answer: B) Urea breath test

Question 228: A 30 years old man presents with generalised oedema, haematuria, hypertension and subnephrotic proteinuria (< 2 gm ). Urine examination shows microscopic haematuria. Serum complement levels are decreased. He is positive for anti hepatitis C antibodies. The most likely diagnosis is ?
A) PSGN
B) Mixed cryoglobulinemia
C) Lupus nephritis
D) MPGN
Answer: B) Mixed cryoglobulinemia

Question 243: Methotrexate is used in the treatment of ?
A) Rhabdomyosarcoma
B) Osteosarcoma
C) Multiple myeloma
Answer: B) Osteosarcoma

Question 245: All are true for immunosupressants except ?
A) Tacrolimus inhibits calcineurin pathway
B) Steriods inhibit ?
C) Mycophenolate acts by inhibiting guanosine monophosphate dehydrogenase
Answer: C) Mycophenolate acts by inhibiting guanosine monophosphate dehydrogenase

Question 251: True regarding rabies ?
A) Negri bodies
B) Only motor involvement
C) Positive strand RNA virus
Answer: A) Negri bodies

Question 253: The following are associated with AML except ?
A) Turner's syndrome
B) Down's syndrome
C) Patau's syndrome
D) Klinefelter's syndrome
Answer: A) Turner's syndrome

Question 258: Most effective strategy under eradication of cogenital rubella syndrome is to immunize ?
A) All Adolescents
B) All pregnant women in 2nd trimester
C) all nonpregnant girls in reproductive age group
Answer: C) all nonpregnant girls in reproductive age group

Question 261: Cardiomyopathy is not seen in ?
A) Friedrich's ataxia
B) Duchenne dystrophy
C) Lowe's syndrome
Answer: C) Lowe's syndrome

Question 262: Minor Criteria for Rheumatic Fever is ?
A) Rising ASO titre
B) Throat culture
C) Fever
Answer: C) Fever

Question 264: Changes in congestive cardiac failure are all except ?
A) Increased Right atrial pressure
B) Edema
C) Decreased Sodium
D) ??
Answer: D) ??

Question 268: Treatment of choice in Zollinger Ellison syndrome is ?
A) Proton pump inhibitors
B) H2 blockers
C) Gastrectomy
D) Octreotide
Answer: A) Proton pump inhibitors

Question 276: In a patient with cardiogenic shock and anterior wall infarction, best treatment of choice is ?
A) Angiography with angioplasty
B) Intraaortic balloon pump (IABP)
C) Dopamine
D) Streptokinase
Answer: B) Intraaortic balloon pump (IABP)

Question 277: Which of the following is not true regarding Brown-Sequard syndrome ?
A) Contralateral spinothalamic tract involvement
B) Ipsilateral loss of motor power
C) Contralateral posterior column involvement
Answer: C) Contralateral posterior column involvement

Question 279: Drug not used in erectile dysfunction is ?
A) Phenylephrine
B) Testosterone
C) Alprostadil
Answer: A) Phenylephrine

Question 283: Non used in controlling heart rate ?
A) Encainide
B) Procainamide
C) Verapamil
D) ??
Answer: D) ??

Question 284: True regarding Kawasaki's disease are all except ?
A) Presence of fever
B) Associated with rash
C) Associated with purulent conjunctivitis
D) Inflammed oral mucosa
Answer: C) Associated with purulent conjunctivitis

Question 288: All of the following are true for promyelocytic except ?
A) Associated with DIC
B) Translocation 15.17
C) Retinoids are used for treatment
D) CD Marker CD15 and 34 positive
Answer: D) CD Marker CD15 and 34 positive

Question 297: All are true regarding Oxygen toxicity except ?
A) It causes retinal blindness
B) It causes pulmonary edema
C) Less cerebral flow causes oxygen toxicity
D) Oxygen will cause convulsions
Answer: C) Less cerebral flow causes oxygen toxicity


Microbiology Mcqs

Question 6: All are true regarding Chlamydia pssitacci except ?
A) Transmitted by parrots
B) Causes community acquired pneumonia
C) Causes inclusion conjunctivitis
D) Tetracycline is the treatment of choice
Answer: C) Causes inclusion conjunctivitis

Question 41: Which of this is not true about Vibrio O139 ?
A) Can cause disease indistinguishable from Vibrio O1
B) Was fist isolated in chennai
C) has O-antigen polysaccharide capsule
Answer: B) Was fist isolated in chennai

Question 42: Which of this is not true about Vibrio cholerae ?
A) Nonhalophilic
B) Can be grown in ordinary media
C) Can survive outside the body
Answer: C) Can survive outside the body

Question 78: Which of the following act by increasing cAMP / adenylate cyclase ?
A) Vibrio cholerae
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) E. coli, heat stable toxin
D) Salmonella
Answer: A) Vibrio cholerae

Question 80: Which of the following is not true regarding Chlamydia ?
A) Has biphasic life
B) Elementary body is metabolically active
C) Reticulate body undergoes binary fission
D) Once it invades into cell it abates phagolysosomal fusion
Answer: B) Elementary body is metabolically active

Question 102: Which of the following is not useful for Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) ?
A) Cefaclor
B) Cotrimoxazole
C) Ciprofloxacin
D) Vancomycin
Answer: A) Cefaclor

Question 104: With reference to Bacteriodes fragilis, the following statements are true except ?
A) Bacteroides fragilis is the most frequent anaerobe isolated from clinical samples
B) Bacteriodes fragilis is not uniformly sensitive to metronidazole
C) The LPS formed by Bacteriodes fragilis is structurally and functionally different from the conventional endotoxins
D) Shock and DIC are common in Bacteriodes bacteremia
Answer: D) Shock and DIC are common in Bacteriodes bacteremia

Question 105: A person from village is complaining of developement of pustules of the leg. Culture was done which showed gram positive cocci in chains which were alpha hemolytic colonies and catalase negative, identified as group A streptococci. Which of the following tests will best identify the organism ?
A) Bile solubility
B) Optochin sensitivity
C) Bacitracin sensitivity
D) Novobiocin sensitivity
Answer: C) Bacitracin sensitivity

Question 106: A young male patient presented with UTI. On urine examination, abundant pus cells were found on gram stain but no organisms were seen. Which method would be best used for culture ?
A) Mc Coy cell line
B) Thayer Martin Medium
C) L.J. Medium
D) Levinthal medium
Answer: A) Mc Coy cell line

Question 107: Which one of the following is true ?
A) Agar has nutrient properties
B) Chocholate medium is selective medium
C) Addition of selective substances in a solid medium is called enrichment media
D) Nutrient broth is a basal medium
Answer: D) Nutrient broth is a basal medium

Question 114: BCYE is used for ?
A) Legionella
B) Streptococcus
Answer: A) Legionella


Obstetrics Mcqs

Question 12: Perinatal transmission of Hepatitis B is maximum when infection in mother occurs in ?
A) At implantation
B) 1st trimester
C) 2nd trimester
D) 3rd trimester
Answer: D) 3rd trimester

Question 17: A child has TGA. The mother should be investigated for ?
A) Maternal Gestational Diabetes
B) Maternal PIH
C) Heart Disease
Answer: A) Maternal Gestational Diabetes

Question 29: The shape of nulliparous cervix is ?
A) Circular
B) Longitudinal
C) Transverse
D) Fimbriated
Answer: A) Circular

Question 30: The shape of cervical canal leading to preterm delivery is ?
A) T shaped
B) Y shaped
C) U shaped
D) O shaped
Answer: C) U shaped

Question 72: Premature baby of 34 weeks was delivered, baby had bullous lesions on the body and Xray shows periostitis. What is the next Investigation ?
A) VDRL for mother and baby
B) ELISA for HIV
C) PCR for TB
D) Hepatitis surface antigen for Mother
Answer: A) VDRL for mother and baby

Question 100: Hypothyroidism in pregnancy is least likely associated with ?
A) Recurrent abortions
B) Polyhydramnios
C) PIH
D) Preterm labour
Answer: B) Polyhydramnios

Question 126: Dexamethasone is given to mother in third trimester ?
A) To reduce hyaline membrane disease / Fetal pulmonary maturity
Answer: A) To reduce hyaline membrane disease / Fetal pulmonary maturity

Question 164: In Bishop's score all are included except ?
A) Effacement of Cervix
B) Dilatation of Cervix
C) Station of head
D) Interspinous diameter
Answer: D) Interspinous diameter

Question 191: Sterlization is commonly performed at which site of fallopian tube ?
A) Ampulla
B) Infundibulum
C) Isthmus
D) Cornua
Answer: C) Isthmus

Question 212: External cephalic version is contraindicated in ?
A) Anemia
B) Flexed Breech
C) PIH
Answer: C) PIH

Question 256: Maximum increase in cardiac output during pregnancy is seen in ?
A) 32 weeks
B) 36 weeks
C) During labour
Answer: C) During labour

Question 257: An ovarian cyst is identified in the immediate post-partum period. What should be the timing of surgery ?
A) 2 weeks
B) 6 weeks
C) 8 weeks
D) Immediately
Answer: D) Immediately

Question 269: Blood flow waveform in uterine arteries during contraction which predict IUGR ?
A) diastolic notch
B) diastolic flow reversal
C) low diastolic flow
D) low systolic flow
Answer: C) low diastolic flow

Ophthalmology Mcqs

Question 13: Lamina Cribrosa is not formed in which of the following conditions ?
A) Morning Glory Syndrome
B) Nanophthalmia
C) Coloboma of retina
D) Optic nerve agenesis
Answer: A) Morning Glory Syndrome

Question 18: Which of the following retinal diseases is transmitted as Autosomal Dominant Trait ?
A) Best Disease
B) Gyrate Atrophy
C) LMB syndrome
Answer: A) Best Disease

Question 147: Which of the following is not included in the SAFE strategy for Trachoma ?
A) Facial cleanliness
B) Enviornmental cleanliness
C) Screening
D) Antibiotics
Answer: C) Screening

Question 177: Which of these does not handle the free radicals in lens ?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin C
C) Vitamin E
D) Catalase
Answer: C) Vitamin E

Question 286: All of the following are responsible for blindness in childhood except ?
A) Dacryocystitis
B) Glaucoma
C) Malnutrition
D) Ophthalmia neonatorum
Answer: A) Dacryocystitis


Orthopaedics Mcqs

Question 3: Claw hand is caused by lesions of ?
A) Ulnar nerve
B) Median nerve
C) Axillary nerve
D) Radial nerve
Answer: A) Ulnar nerve

Question 99: Which tumor arises from the epiphysis ?
A) Osteoclastoma
B) Osteosarcoma
C) Ewing's sarcoma
D) Chondro myxoid fibroma
Answer: A) Osteoclastoma

Question 158: Burst fracture of the spine is a type of (Commonest injury causing burst fracture of the spine)?
A) Compression fracture / injury
B) Extension injury
C) Direct injury
Answer: A) Compression fracture / injury

Question 160: Most common force involved in fracture spine is ?
A) Flexion
B) Extension
C) Rotation
D) Compression
Answer: A) Flexion

Question 163: Bohlers angle measure gives reference for ?
A) Calcaneum
B) Talus
C) Navicular
D) Cuboid
Answer: A) Calcaneum

Question 170: Tube cast is applied in fracture of ?
A) Shoulder
B) Hip
C) Pelvis
D) Knee
Answer: D) Knee

Question 199: Which of these muscles are involved along with osteoarthritis of knee ?
A) Quadriceps only
B) Hamstrings only
C) A+B
D) Gastrocnemius
Answer: A) Quadriceps only

Question 260: All are markers for osteoblastic activity except ?
A) Alkaline phosphatase
B) Osteocalcin
C) Bone scan
D) Hydroxyproline
Answer: D) Hydroxyproline

Question 267: In pelvic fractures the most likely structure to get injured is ?
A) Urethra
B) Urinary bladder
C) Ureter
Answer: A) Urethra

Question 270: Best investigation for temporal bone fracture ?
A) CT
B) MRI
C) Xray
Answer: A) CT

Question 282: Investigation not required in osteosarcoma ?
A) MRI femur
B) Bone marrow biopsy
C) CT chest
D) Bone Scan
Answer: B) Bone marrow biopsy

Question 291: Pulsatile tumor is seen in ?
A) Ewing's
B) Osteosarcoma
C) Chondrosarcoma
D) Osteoclastoma
Answer: D) Osteoclastoma


Otorhinolaryngology Mcqs

Question 128: Rhinolalia clausa is caused by all except ?
A) Allergic rhinitis
B) Palatal palsy
C) Adenoids
Answer: B) Palatal palsy

Question 157: Rhinophyma is ?
A) Hyperplasia of the sebaceous glands
B) Hyperplasia of the sweat glands
Answer: A) Hyperplasia of the sebaceous glands

Question 211: Acoustic neuroma, first nerve to get involved is ?
A) 5
B) 7
C) 10
D) 9
Answer: A) 5

Question 225: Commonest site for CSF rhinorrhoea is ?
A) Ethmoid sinus
B) Frontal sinus
C) Petrous
D) Sphenoid sinus
Answer: A) Ethmoid sinus

Question 271: Brown's sign is seen in ?
A) Glomus tumor
B) Acoustic neuroma
C) Otosclerosis
Answer: A) Glomus tumor


Paediatrics Mcqs

Question 11: A 6 year old child with IQ 50 can do which of the following ?
A) Identify colors
B) Read a sentence
C) Ride a bicycle
D) Draw / Copy a triangle
Answer: A) Identify colors

Question 19: What is Pentalogy of Fallot ?
A) TOF with ASD
Answer: A) TOF with ASD

Question 23: Commonest childhood malignancy is ?
A) Leukemia
B) Neuroblastoma
C) Lymphoma
D) Wilm's tumor
Answer: A) Leukemia

Question 56: Meningitis in 1 year old is caused by ?
A) H. influenzae
B) Listeria
C) E. coli
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Answer: D) Streptococcus pneumoniae

Question 110: A 1 year old child with bronchial asthma. Treatment of choice is ?
A) Inhaled shortacting B2 agonist
B) Oral Ketotifen
C) Oral LT2 receptor antagonist
D) Oral Theophyllin
Answer: A) Inhaled shortacting B2 agonist

Question 153: Moro's reflex disappears by ?
A) 3 months
B) 5 months
C) 7 months
Answer: A) 3 months

Question 159: Earliest milestone to be achieved is ?
A) Mirror Gazing / Playing
B) Pincer grip
C) Crawling
D) Creeping
Answer: A) Mirror Gazing / Playing

Question 208: Reflex not present at birth is ?
A) asymmetric neck reflex
B) tonic neck reflex
C) rooting reflex
D) crossed extensor reflex
Answer: A) asymmetric neck reflex

Question 216: Best indicator of long term nutritional status of a child ?
A) Body weight
B) Mid arm circumference
C) Weights for height (Rate of increase of height and weight)
D) linear growth
Answer: C) Weights for height (Rate of increase of height and weight)

Question 240: Most common cause of growth delay is ?
A) Constitutional delay
B) Growth hormone deficiency
C) Cretinism
Answer: A) Constitutional delay

Question 280: Child with URTI presents with stridor which decreases on lying down position. The most likely diagnosis is ?
A) Acute epiglottitis
B) Croup
C) Laryngotracheobronchitis
D) Retropharyngeal abscess
Answer: C) Laryngotracheobronchitis

Question 293: Which of the following is used to monitor respiration in neonate (not intubated) ?
A) Capnography
B) Impedance pulmonometry
C) Nasal temperature
Answer: B) Impedance pulmonometry

Question 298: Child has started mouthing object, shows likes/dislikes and does not developed stranger anxiety. What is the age ?
A) 3 months
B) 5 months
C) 7 months
D) 9 months
Answer: C) 7 months


Pathology Mcqs

Question 15: Non Specific Esterase (NSE) is seen in ?
A) AML 3
Answer: A) AML 3

Question 37: Patient's PT given, control PT given, ISI was given as 1.4. How will you calculate INR ?
A) Patient's observed PT (in seconds) / Calculated mean normal PT (in seconds)
B) (pts PT/PT control)1.4
C) (pts PT/PT control)1/1.4
Answer: B) (pts PT/PT control)1.4

Question 51: Good prognostic factors in childhood leukemia are all except ?
A) Common ALL subtype
B) pre-B ALL
C) Hyperploidy
D) Female gender
Answer: B) pre-B ALL

Question 57: An inheritance chart for disease. Options were ?
A) Mitochondrial inheritance
B) X linked dominant
C) Autosomal dominant
D) Autosomal recessive
Answer: A) Mitochondrial inheritance

Question 58: Which one of the following is not a Thyroid Cancer ?
A) Follicular
B) Anaplastic
C) Insular
D) Merkel
Answer: D) Merkel

Question 82: Serum differs from plasma in all except ?
A) Fibrinogen
B) Factor VIII
C) Factor VII
D) Factor V
Answer: C) Factor VII

Question 98: Which amyloid is found in the kidney in patients who have been on dialysis ?
A) Beta2 microglobulin
Answer: A) Beta2 microglobulin

Question 113: All are autosomal dominant except ?
A) Marfan's syndrome
B) Fabry's sydrome
C) Huntingon's Chorea
D) ADPKD
Answer: B) Fabry's syndrome

Question 124: Which of the following is an immunohistochemical marker for Paget's disease of the breast ?
A) s100
B) hmb 45
C) synaptophysin
D) CEA
Answer: A) s100

Question 130: Anaphylactic reaction (Type I hypersensitivity) is mediated by ?
A) IgG
B) IgM
C) IgD
D) IgE
Answer: D) IgE

Question 132: Arthus reaction is ?
A) Antibody mediated
B) systemic immune complex deposition disease
C) localised immune complex deposition disease
D) delayed hypersensitivity reaction
Answer: C) localised immune complex deposition disease

Question 133: Viral cells specifically killed by ?
A) Cytotoxic T cells
B) Neutrophils
C) Complement
D) Natural Killer cells
Answer: D) Natural Killer cells

Question 154: Indicator for CSF leak ?
A) Beta 2 transferrin
B) Beta protein trace
C) Dye test
Answer: A) Beta 2 transferrin

Question 167: Hereditary spherocytosis is due to deficiency of all except ?
A) ankyrin
B) spectrin
C) anion exchanger
D) glycophorin 2
Answer: D) glycophorin 2

Question 178: Which of these investigations is helpful in heterophoric calcification ?
A) Alkaline phosphatase
B) Calcium
C) Acid phosphatase
D) Phosphorus
Answer: B) Calcium

Question 200: Absolute indication for bone marrow biopsy ?
A) Plasmacytosis
B) Leukemia
C) Megaloblastic anemia
D) Gaucher's disease
E) Aplastic anemia
Answer: C) Megaloblastic anemia

Question 210: Pancytopenia with bone marrow hypercellularity is seen in ?
A) G6PD deficiency
B) Myelodysplasia
C) PNH
D) Megaloblastic anemia
E) Aplastic anemia
Answer: C) PNH

Question 214: cANCA is associated with antibodies to ?
A) Proteinase 3
B) Myeloperoxidase
C) Lactoferrin
Answer: A) Proteinase 3

Question 254: Iron deficiency anaemia is associated with ?
A) Increased TIBC, decreased Ferritin
B) Decreased TIBC, decreased Ferritin
C) Normal TIBC, decreased Ferritin
D) Normal TIBC, increased Ferritin
Answer: A) Increased TIBC, decreased Ferritin

Question 255: AIHA is mostly associated with ?
A) B cell lymphomas
B) T cell lymphomas
C) Histiocytosis
D) Myeloid disorders
Answer: A) B cell lymphomas

Question 259: Bernard Soulier Syndrome is associated with all except ?
A) increased platelet size
B) reduced platelet count
C) ristocetin is normal
D) ADP is normal
Answer: C) ristocetin is normal

Question 265: FAB L3 refers to ?
A) pre-B ALL
B) T cell ALL
C) B cell ALL
D) Mixed ALL
Answer: C) B cell ALL

Question 272: Immediate response to tissue injury ?
A) Neutropenia
B) Neutrophilia
C) Monocytosis
Answer: B) Neutrophilia

Question 273: A patient with antibodies to DNA, suffering from manifestations of kidney, liver, skin. Probable diagnosis is ?
A) Systemic sclerosis
B) SLE
C) Wegner's Granulomatosis
D) Rheumatoid arthritis
Answer: B) SLE

Question 274: A 55 year old male presents with TLC 1,00,00; 80% Lymphocytes; 20% Polymorphs. Diagnosis is ?
A) CLL
B) HIV
C) TB
Answer: A) CLL

Question 275: Autosomal recessive trait is seen in child inspite of normal parents due to ?
A) Uniparental disomy
B) Mosaicism
Answer: A) Uniparental disomy


Pharmacology Mcqs

Question 9: Nevirapine is ?
A) Non Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor
B) Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor
C) Protease inhibitor
D) Nucleotide inhibitor
Answer: A) Non Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor

Question 10: Nesiritide is a ?
A) Brain natriuretic peptide
Answer: A) Brain natriuretic peptide

Question 21: Which of the following anticancer drugs causes hyperviscocity syndrome ?
A) Vinblastine
B) L-asparaginase
C) 5-FU
Answer: B) L-asparaginase

Question 22: Chemotherapeutic agent causing SIADH as a side effect is ?
A) Vincristine
B) Cyclophosphamide
C) 5-FU
D) Bleomycin
E) Gemcitabine
Answer: A) Vincristine

Question 28: Finasteride acts via ?
A) Alpha blockade
B) 5-alpha reductase inhibition
C) Selective alpha-1 blockade
D) Androgen receptor antagonism
Answer: B) 5-alpha reductase inhibition

Question 50: Which antiepileptic is not contraindicated in pregnancy ?
A) Phenobarbitone
B) Phenytoin
C) Carbamazepine
D) Valproic acid
Answer: A) Phenobarbitone

Question 59: Which one of the following is not an alkylating agent ?
A) 5 Flurouracil
B) Busulphan
C) Cyclophosphamide
D) Cyclosporine
Answer: A) 5 Flurouracil

Question 101: One of the following is not a prodrug ?
A) Enalapril
B) Dipivefrine
C) Levodopa
D) Captopril
Answer: D) Captopril

Question 111: Maximum Peripheral Neuropathy is caused by ?
A) Zidovudine
B) Stavudine
C) Lamivudine
D) Didanosine
Answer: D) Didanosine

Question 127: All of the insulin preparations are short and rapidly acting except ?
A) insulin lispro
B) insulin aspart
C) insulin glargine
D) lente insulin
Answer: C) insulin glargine

Question 129: True about octreotide ?
A) Is orally active
B) Used in secretory diarrhoea
Answer: B) Used in secretory diarrhoea

Question 137: All are true about clonidine except ?
A) Stimulates parasympathetic outflow
B) Causes dry mouth
C) Prazosin antagonizes its action
D) Alpha adrenergic agnoist
Answer: C) Prazosin antagonizes its action

Question 143: Botulinum toxin acts on all sites except ?
A) Neuromuscular junction
B) Peripheral ganglia
C) Postganglionic nerve endings
D) CNS
Answer: D) CNS

Question 169: Patient on aspirin will have ?
A) increased PT
B) increased APTT
C) increaed BT
D) increased thrombin time
Answer: C) increaed BT

Question 181: Orange red coloured urine is seen in ?
A) INH
B) Pyrazinamide
C) Rifampicin
D) Ethambutol
Answer: C) Rifampicin

Question 222: Which of the following is not an antiepileptic ?
A) Phenobarbitone
B) Carbamazepine
C) Phenytoin
D) Flunarizine
Answer: D) Flunarizine

Question 223: Which of the following antiepileptic does not act through Na+ channels ?
A) Phenytoin
B) Valproic acid
C) Vigabatrin
D) Lamotrigine
Answer: C) Vigabatrin

Question 239: Which of the following acts by hypomethylation ?
A) Decitabine
B) Gemcitabine
C) 5-FU
Answer: A) Decitabine

Question 244: Anti-pseudomonas antibiotic ?
A) Cefaclor
B) Ciprofloxacin
Answer: B) Ciprofloxacin

Question 246: All are nonselective beta blockers without any additional action except ?
A) Carvedilol
B) Betaxolol
C) Carteolol
D) Labetalol
Answer: B) Betaxolol

Question 247: Prostaglandin that helps in protecting Gastrointestinal mucosa is ?
A) PGF2
B) PGE1
C) PGD2
Answer: B) PGE1

Question 248: The side effects of Heparin are all except ?
A) Alopecia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypersensitivity
D) Thrombocytopenia
Answer: B) Hypokalemia

Question 249: The following is not a GP IIb / IIIa inhibitor ?
A) Dipyridamole
B) Abciximab
C) Eptifibatide
D) Tirofiban
Answer: A) Dipyridamole

Question 250: Which of the following is associated with DIC ?
A) Vincristine
B) Gemcitabine
C) L-asparaginase
D) Busulphan
Answer: C) L-asparaginase

Question 252: Leukotriene receptor inhibitor ?
A) Zafirlukast
B) Zilueton
Answer: A) Zafirlukast

Question 263: Which of the following antiplatelets is a prodrug ?
A) Aspirin
B) Dipyridamole
C) Ticlopidine
D) Clopidogrel
Answer: B) Dipyridamole

Question 278: All of the following are side effects of beta agnoists except ?
A) Tachycardia
B) Tremor
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Hyperglycemia
Answer: C) Hyperkalemia


Physiology Mcqs

Question 14: Papez circuit in limbic system involves ?
A) Anterior thalamic nucleus
B) Anterior hypothalamic nucleus
C) Posterior hypothalamic nucleus
Answer: A) Anterior thalamic nucleus

Question 24: Leukotriene receptor inhibitor ?
A) Montelukast
B) Zilueton
Answer: A) Montelukast

Question 38: Conversion of short term memory to long term memory occurs in ?
A) Frontal cortex
B) Hippocampus
C) Amygdala
Answer: B) Hippocampus

Question 141: Enzyme not stable at acidic pH are all except ?
A) Trypsin
B) Chymotrypsin
C) Pepsin
D) Carboxypeptidase
Answer: C) Pepsin

Question 144: Site of RBC formation in 20 year old healthy male ?
A) Flat bones
B) Long bones
C) Liver
Answer: A) Flat bones

Question 146: Mechanism of cellular memory & learning include all except ?
A) increase and decrease in neurotransmitter release as in learning and habituation
B) increase in number of synapses, increase in number of synaptic terminals, increases in number of dendrites
C) recruitment of neurons, involvement of more neurons in a particular function as in somatosensory area of cortex
D) allocation of specialized nerve cells as occurs in hippocampus
Answer: C) recruitment of neurons, involvement of more neurons in a particular function as in somatosensory area of cortex

Question 173: Hormone not secreted by kidney ?
A) Angiotensin 1
B) 1, 25 Di hydroxy cholecalciferol
C) Erythropoietin
D) Renin
Answer: A) Angiotensin 1

Question 174: Broca's area is involved in ?
A) Word formation
B) Word interpretation
Answer: A) Word formation

Question 186: Agranular Endoplasmic Reticulum produces / synthesizes ?
A) Proteins
B) Lipids
C) Vitamins
D) Carbohydrates
Answer: B) Lipids

Question 188: 'd' (delta) waves are found in ?
A) Deep sleep
B) Awake
Answer: A) Deep sleep

Question 192: When a person ascends to obtain max benefit from ?
A) decrease work load and increase duration of exercise
B) increase work load and decrease duration of exercise
C) decrease work load and inhaling oxygen
Answer: A) decrease work load and increase duration of exercise

Question 195: Factor present in final common complement pathway ?
A) C4
B) C3
C) C5
D) Protein B
E) C2
Answer: C) C5

Question 198: True regarding S4 is ?
A) can be heard by unaided ear
B) more than 20 hz
C) due to ventricular filling
D) due to ventricular ejection
Answer: C) due to ventricular filling

Question 229: Heart muscle all true except ?
A) Acts as syncytium
B) has multiple nuclei
C) has gap junctions
Answer: B) has multiple nuclei

Question 230: Regarding gastrointestinal motility all are true except ?
A) completely independent of stomach influence
B) depends on CCK
Answer: A) completely independent of stomach influence

Question 289: What is the difference between sexual maturity in boys and girls at puberty ?
A) Inc inhibin
B) Spurt of FSH
Answer: A) Inc inhibin


Psychiatry Mcqs

Question 75: Drug of choice for OCD ?
A) Imipramine
B) Fluoxetine
C) Chlorpromazine
D) Benzodiazepine
Answer: B) Fluoxetine

Question 76: Naltrexone is used in opioid addiction because ?
A) To treat withdrawal symptoms
B) To treat overdose of opioids
C) To prevent relapse
D) Has addiction potential
Answer: C) To prevent relapse

Question 77: Delusion is a disorder of ?
A) Thought
B) Perception
C) Insight
D) Cognition
Answer: A) Thought

Question 103: A 3 year old child with normal developmental milestones but delayed speech, difficulty in communication, concentration and not making friends. The most likely diagnosis is ?
A) Autism
B) Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
C) Specific learning disability
D) Mental retardation
Answer: A) Autism

Question 187: Not included in Diagnosis of bipolar disorder ?
A) Mania alone
B) Mania and Depression
C) Depression alone
D) Mania and Anxiety
Answer: D) Mania and Anxiety

Question 203: Commonest manifestation of alcohol withdrawal syndrome is ?
A) Tremors
B) Diarrhoea
C) Lacrimation
Answer: A) Tremors


Radiodiagnosis Mcqs

Question 27: Fetus with increased nuchal translucency at 14 wks is seen in ?
A) Down's syndrome
B) Esophageal atresia
C) Turner's syndrome
Answer: A) Down's syndrome

Question 62: A newborn has congenital heart failure, not improving with treatment. He has bulging anterior fontanelles with a bruit on auscultation. On trans fontanelle USG a hypoechoic midline mass is seen with dilated lateral ventricles. Most probable diagnosis is ?
A) Vein of galen malformation
B) Medulloblastoma
C) Arachnoid cyst
D) Encephalocele
Answer: A) Vein of galen malformation

Question 64: Unconscious male with external injuries, CT Shows multiple spotty hemorrhages and full basal cisterns. What is the most likely diagnosis ?
A) Diffuse axonal injury
B) Brain contusions
C) Subdural hematoma
D) Multiple infarcts
Answer: A) Diffuse axonal injury

Question 65: A 45 year old female complains of progressive weakness and spasticity of lower limbs, difficulty in micturition, CT shows intradural mid dorsal midline enhancing lesion. The diagnosis is ?
A) Meningioma
B) Intradural Lipoma
C) Neuroepithelial Cyst
D) Dermoid Cyst
Answer: A) Meningioma

Question 89: Isotope used in radioisotope scanning is ?
A) I 131
B) I 123
C) I 125
D) I 127
Answer: A) I 131

Question 116: A 7 year old body with xray features of codman's triangle and sunray appearance, most probably has ?
A) Osteoclastoma
B) Chondrosarcoma
C) Osteosarcoma
Answer: C) Osteosarcoma

Question 206: A patient presented with unilateral progressive proptosis, increased on bending forward and compressible, on auscultation no bruit is heard. Usg shows hyper echoic mass with acoustic shadow. The likely diagnosis is ?
A) AV malformation
B) Orbital varix
C) Neurofibromatosis
D) Orbital encephalocele
Answer: B) Orbital varix

Question 292: Radiocontrast is contraindicated in all except ?
A) Renal failure
B) Patient on metformin
C) Dehydration
D) Obesity
Answer: D) Obesity


Radiotherapy Mcqs

Question 118: Radiosensitive tumor ?
A) Dysgerminoma
Answer: A) Dysgerminoma

Question 172: Which waves are not used for deep tumors / Which is not a deep
A) Short wave diathermy
B) Infrared
C) Ultrasonic
D) Microwave
Answer: B) Infrared


Surgery Mcqs

Question 26: A 50 year old man with family history of carcinoma prostate wants to do screening. The most sensitive test is ?
A) Digital rectal examination
B) Serum PSA
C) Both A + B Combined
D) Endorectal coil MRI with T1 and T2 weighed images
Answer: C) Both A + B Combined

Question 31: Which of the statements related to gastric injury is untrue ?
A) Mostly related to penetrating trauma
B) Treatment is simple debridement and suturing
C) Blood in stomach always related to gastric injury
D) Heals well and fast
Answer: C) Blood in stomach always related to gastric injury

Question 53: Trauma to the temporal bone with injury to VIIth nerve. Which is true ?
A) Longitudinal Fracture
B) Transverse Fracture
C) Always associated with CSF leak
D) The paralysis of VIIth is always complete
Answer: B) Transverse Fracture

Question 61: Which of the following is the most important prognostic indicator in head injury ?
A) Glasgow coma scale
B) Age
C) Bleeding on CT
Answer: A) Glasgow coma scale

Question 63: To expose the coeliac axis, left renal vein, superior mesenteric artery and abdominal aorta in a case of abdominal trauma, which is done ?
A) Left median visceral rotation
B) Right median visceral rotation
C) Cranial visceral rotation
D) Caudal visceral rotation
Answer: A) Left median visceral rotation

Question 66: Which of the following is not premalignant ?
A) Puetz Jegher's syndrome
B) Juvenile polyp
C) FAP
D) Gardner's syndrome
Answer: B) Juvenile polyp

Question 68: SCM (Sternocleidomastoid) tumor all are true except ?
A) Always associated with breech extraction
B) Spontaneous resolution in most cases
C) 2/3rd have palpable neck mass at birth
D) Uncorrected cases develop phagiocephaly
Answer: A) Always associated with breech extraction

Question 86: A patient presented with RTA with fracture pelvis, few drops of blood passed per urethrally without passage of urine, and palpable bladder. The likely cause is ?
A) Ureteral injury
B) Urethral injury
C) Bladder rupture
D) Urine extravasation to peritoneum
Answer: B) Urethral injury

Question 97: A 45 year old male presents with a history of vomiting of 500 ml of blood 24 hrs back, 90/60 BP, 110 / min pulse rate, and splenomegaly 5 cms below the costal margin. Most probable diagnosis is ?
A) Duodenal ulcer
B) Portal hypertension
C) Gastric ulcer
D) Erosive gastritis
Answer: B) Portal hypertension

Question 122: A 60 year old smoker came with history of painless gross hematuria for one (or two) day. Most logical (or diagnostic) investigation would be ?
A) Urine routine and microscopy
B) Plain Xray KUB
C) USG KUB
D) Urine for malignant cytology
Answer: D) Urine for malignant cytology

Question 123: Branchial cyst, which is true ?
A) Cysts are more common than sinuses
B) Sinus should always be operated
C) Mostly arises from 2nd branchial system
D) Cause dysphagia and hoarseness
Answer: C) Mostly arises from 2nd branchial system

Question 142: True about pilonidal sinus ?
A) Common in females
B) Congenital
C) Treatment of choice is excision of sinus
D) Hair follicles can be demonstrated in the sinus wall
Answer: C) Treatment of choice is excision of sinus

Question 145: Most common addiction (substance abuse) in India ?
A) Smoking / Tobacco
B) Alcohol
C) Cannabis
Answer: A) Smoking / Tobacco

Question 193: In a case with blunt injury abdomen, the incision for emergency laparotomy should be ?
A) Paramedian incision
B) Midline incision
C) Transverse upper abdominal incision
D) Subcostal incision
Answer: B) Midline incision

Question 281: All are true for Raynaud's disease except ?
A) More common in women
B) Associated with Raynaud's phenomenon
C) Associated with the presence of antinuclear antibodies
D) Good prognosis
Answer: C) Associated with the presence of antinuclear antibodies

Question 285: Regarding gynaecomastia, false statement is ?
A) May regress spontaneously
B) May regress after discontinuing the offending drug
C) Subcutaneous mastectomy is indicated
D) Associated with liver failure
Answer: C) Subcutaneous mastectomy is indicated

Question 295: True regarding Thyroid lymphoma is ?
A) It is more common in women than in men
B) Respiratory difficulty, cough and dysphagia also can occur as presenting complaints
Answer: B) Respiratory difficulty, cough and dysphagia also can occur as presenting complaints

Question 296: An old man with type 2 DM presents with complaints of dribblnig of urine, urge incontinence, incomplete voiding, etc. The most common probable cause is ?
A) BPH
B) Neurogenic bladder
Answer: B) Neurogenic bladder

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