Pre-PG India is now AcrossPG

All about PostGraduate Medical Entrance Exams...

Now visit our new portal

for updates on PG entrance exams

and study material for PG exams.

PrePG-India Blog: Get all latest info about
Pre PG Exams in India.

AcrossPG on Facebook:
Like our FB Page

AcrossPG-Exams:Get all the Information, Notifications
about Medical PG Entrance Exams.

You are not connected. Please login or register

All ques of aipg 2010

Go to page : 1, 2  Next

View previous topic View next topic Go down  Message [Page 1 of 2]

1 All ques of aipg 2010 on Fri Jan 15, 2010 11:59 pm


Founder & Manager
Founder & Manager
Collection of all questions with most options...
some ans may be wrong...


1. Low CSF protein seen in AE
a. Infant
b. Recurrent LP
c. Hypothyroidism
d. PSeudotumor cerebri

2. Lung parenchyma non respiratoryfunction
a. Exchange of anion ion
b. Sodium exchange
c. Potassium exchange
d. Calcium

3. Maximum Water absorption is in
a. Jujenum
b. Colon
c. Ileum
d. Stomach

4. Decrease insulin in
a. GH
b. Epinephrine, Norepinephrine Ganog
c. Secretin
d. GAstrin- (+)

5. Action of NO on intestine
a. VAsodialation
b. Inhibition of smooth muscle
c. Act through cGMP

6. Heart at, minimally mobile in
a. Late systole
b. Late diastole
c. Mid systole
d. Mid diastole

7. Inulin it an insulin like probiotic
a. Inhibition of gastric enzyme
b. Binds with specific enzyme & causes degradation
c. Increase water content

8. Bronchila artery AE
a. 10% of systemic circulation
b. Helps in gaseous exchange
c. Causes venous mixing of blood

9. There increase in 5 times in cardiac output, little change Pul arterial pressure
a. Exercise induced hyperventilation induced constriction of pulmonary artery
b. Upper lobe ventilation increases more than perfusion
c. Sympathetic (+) decrease tone of vasculature
d. J

10. Pt with head injury, damage to brain is aggravated by
a. Hyperglycemia
b. Hypothermia
c. Hypocapnia
d. Decrease osmolarity

11. BMR depends upon
a. Lean body mass
b. BM index
c. Obesity
d. Body surface area

12. Increase BMR seen Ae- G 281
a. Obesity
b. Hyperthyroidism
c. Feeding
d. Exercise


13. Attachment of sustentaculum Tali, is closely related to BDc 38
a. Anterior tibilais
b. Posterior Tibalis
c. Flexor hallucis longus
d. Digitorum longus

14. Gluteus medius is supplied by
a. Superior gluteal nerve
b. Inferior gluteal nerve
c. Obturator

15. In post ductal Coarctation of aorta Collateral is formed byall EXCEPT- Repeat
a. Vertebral artery
b. Suprascapular artery
c. Subscapular
d. Tranverse cervical

16. All are composite/ Hybrid muscle EXCEPT- AI09
a. Flexor carpi ulnaris
b. FD superficialis
c. pEctineus
d. Bicep femorais

17. Which passes through Foramen magnum
a. Vertebral artery passes through
b. 12th nerve
c. Sympathetic chain
d. ICA

18. celiac plexus location BDC 321
a. Anterior lateral to abdominal aorta- side & front
b. Posterior & around aorta
c. Anteriomedial to left sympathetic chain
d. Posteriomedial to Left sympathetic cahin

19. left sided usually SVC drains into IB S260
a. Right atrium
b. Left atriam
c. coronary sinus – open into RA through large cornary sinus
d. pericardial space

20. shoulder abduction all except.... Repeat AI08
a. clavi movemnt at medial end
b. Medial scapula rotation
c. acromio clavicl jt movement
d. humerus evelation
e. Axial rotation of humerus

21. Urigenital diaphragm is formed AE by repeat N08
a. Colle’s fascia
b. Deep transverse perinea
c. Perineal membrane
d. Sphincter uretherae

22. Hypogastric sheath is condensation of
a. Scarpa fascia
b. Colle fascia
c. Pelvic fascia
d. Inferior layer of urogenital diaphragm

23. Most commonly seen is renal vessel anomaly
a. Supranumerary renal vein
b. Suprnumerary renal; artery
c. Double renal vein
d. Double renal artery

24. LN drainage of urethra spongiosum AI09
a. Deep inguinal


25. Not moving on Electrophoresis
a. Chylomicron
b. LDL
d. IDL

26. Branch cahin AAS oxidation is defective in
a. Maple syrup
b. HAr t nup
c. PKU
d. Alkaptunuria

27. In comparison of genetic expression of a tumor cell & normal cell is done by Robbins 317
a. Microarray
b. Southern blot
c. Northern blot
d. Western blot

28. Mitochondrial enzyme
a. Alkaline phosphatise
d. Gamma GT
e. 2 component, mitoc/ Cytosolic, in Alcoholic cirrhosis mito increases

29. Procedure consist of charged surface and a moving phase for separartion, what is the procedure
a. Ion exchange chromatography
b. Adsorption
c. Electrophoresis


30. Marker for LAngerhans cell histiocytosis- Repat
a. CD1a

31. Bradykinin is for
a. Pain
b. Vasodilatation
c. Vasoconstriction
d. Increase vascular permeability

32. Rothera test for
a. Glucose
b. Ketone

33. For examination of fungus form a sample uniformly stain by
a. V
b. PAS
c. Alizarin
d. MassonTrichome

34. Lymphoplasmacytoid lymphoma is associated with
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgD
d. IgM

35. PNH associated with
a. DAF
c. GPI
d. dj

36. Retinoblastoma associated with
a. Osteosarcoma
b. RCC
c. Pineoblastoma
d. jsd

a. Cell injury
b. Apoptosis
c. Necrosis
d. D

38. Cannot be used in Aneuploidy detection
b. Rt PCR
c. Nested PCR
d. Microaarray

39. Light Microscopic characteristicfeature of APOPTOSIS- R28
a. Intact cell membrane
b. Eosinophilic cytoplasm (found in both necrosis & apoptosis)
c. Nuclear moulding small ( Differentiate with necrosis on Light microscopy0
d. V

40. Down syndrome genetics
a. mAternal non disjunction
b. Paternal nin disjunction
c. Mosacism

41. Chromophill RCC genetics- R 1016
a. Mutant VHL gene
b. Gain/loss of 3p
c. Trisomy 7/17
d. Loss of 5q

42. Indicator of NTD
a. Acetylcholinesterase

43. AFP raised in
a. HEpatoblastoma

44. AFP Not raised in
a. Pure choriocarcinoma
b. Teratoma
c. Yolk sac tumor
d. Embyonal cell carcinoma

45. Pt with cystic fibrosis, AR, what are the chances the sister of involve female sibling will be carrier
a. 1/4th
b. ½
c. 2/3rd
d. none

46. the stroke, peripheral vascular disease, atherosclerosis, associated with which hormone
a. Insulin def
b. Hyperestrogenemia
c. Hyothyroidism
d. Progesterone

47. most common cause of abd.aortic aneurysm
a. atherosclerosis

48. Male are more commonly involve than female
a. AR
b. AD
c. XR
d. XD

49. Type 1 HLA presents peptide antigen to T cell , so that peptide binding site is formed by- Robbins
a. Alfa & Beta chain
b. Proximal domain alfa 1 & 2
c. Alfa & beta microglobinemia
d. Distal domain alfa 1

50. Lupus anticoagulant not associated with
a. Bleeding
b. Thrombosis
c. Recurrent abortion
d. Aspirin + Heparin is given

51. APl true
a. 1 titer of anticardiolipin is diagnostic
b. It can present with IU fetal death
c. Aspirin is only given
d. Rarely PHT can happen

52. A female presents ILD, Throocascopy shows patchy fibosis, increase fibroblastic foci
a. COOP ( Cryptogenic organisng pneumonia)
b. Hemorrhagic edema
c. Non specific interstitla pneumonia
d. Jd

53. Cavitation is found in
a. Mycoplasma
b. Primary TB
c. Staph
d. Pneumococcus

54. What is the caiuse hypercoagulation in nephrotic syndrome
a. Loss of AT III
b. Decrese fibrinogen
c. Decrease metabolism of Vit K
d. Increase in Protein C


55. Proton pump inhibitor
a. Omeprazole

56. HER 1 / 2 inhibitor – BL 109 table
a. Geftinib
b. Nilotinib
c. Lepatinib
d. Erlotinib

57. With Rivastigmine for Alzheimer disease which drug cannot be given
c. TCA
d. Atypical Antidepressant

58. Serotonin syndrome caused by AE H 118
a. Chlorpromazine
b. SSRi
d. TCA

59. Hydantoin syndrome-
a. Phenytoin

60. which is incorrectly matched
a. phenytoin - cleft lip and palate
b. zidovudine – Low intelligence
c. valproate - neural tube defect
d. Warfarin Nasal bone dysplasia

61. - tyrosine kinase inhibitors are used in ??
b. receptor mediated neuroendocrine tumors

62. Not prophylactically use in MIGRAINE
a. Sumitryptan
b. VErapmil
c. Amytripytline
d. Proponolol

63. All are used in Migraine treatment EXCEPT
a. VAlproate
b. Proponolol
c. Topiramate
d. Ethosuximide

64. Which antemetic has H1 antihistaminic
a. Prometazine
b. Metocloprmide
c. Ondom setron
d. Domperidone

65. AMphotrecin B is to be given with…. To decrease its toxicity
a. With glucose
b. Decrease the dose
c. Liposomal
d. It is combine with flucytosine

66. Thalidomide NOT true is
a. It has been reintroduced for its activity in ENL
b. Developed as antiemetic in pregnancy but withdrawn becaoz of phocomelia
c. Used for new cases & relapsed cases of multiple myeloma
d. MC sE is diarrhea & sd

67. Which is a better steroid prearations in same concentration- KDT 17
a. Gel
b. Cream
c. Ointment oil base
d. Lotion

68. Phenytoin AE
a. Does not Decreases insulin release
b. Follow saturation kinetics
c. At therapeutic dose NO CNS SE
d. Causes NTD

69. Theophylline MA in Bronchial astham
a. Phosphodiesterase inhibitor
b. Increase calcium from Sarcoplasmin reticulum
c. Adenoine receptor inhibitor
d. Sdj

70. Allupurinol used
a. GOUt
b. Sd

71. mAO inhibitor is not used in- KDt 440
a. Pethidine
b. Pentazocine
c. Bupernorphine
d. Morphine

72. Which is false- KDT 467
a. Nalbiphine can be given oral Iv, so used in t/t of constipation Opium addicts
b. Naltrexone given long half life in alcohol craving- only oral
c. Nabifene has got less half life tha naltrexone
d. Sk

73. In Treatment with LINEZOLID which system is monitored KDT 733
a. RENAl
b. GIT
c. Audiometry
d. Platelet count

74. HIT TOC is In apt of HIT which is still require anticoagulation
a. Abcixamib
b. Liprudin
c. Plasminogen
d. Altiplase

75. Myclonus seizure treatment AE
a. Carbamazepine
b. Zonasamide
c. Valpromate
d. Topiramate

76. Narrow therapeutic index
a. Lithium
b. Kd

77. MC congenital anomaly with lithium
a. Cardiac malformation
b. NTD
c. Renal anomaly

78. Hirsutism AE
a. Danazole
b. Phenytoin
c. Norethisterone
d. Flutamide

79. Function of carbidopa
a. Peripheral conversion

80. Mycophenolate mofetil Incorrect
a. Most common Causes nephropathy
b. Used in Transplant rejection
c. It is prodrug & coverted to Mycophenolic acid
d. Cannot be used with Azithioprine

81. female with Pimples, treatment resulting in pigementation which drug given- H 327
a. tetracycline
b. Erythromycin
c. Minocycline
d. Doxycycline


82. A 2 month child with sepsis with beta hemolysis , bacitracin resistance.. CAMp Positive
a. s.pyogenes
b. s.agalactie
c. Enterococcus

83. Septate hyphae branched at 45 degree- H 1259
a. Rhizopus
b. Mucor
c. Aspergillus

84. Diabetic with fungal infection, branched septate hyphae- H1259
a. Aspergillus
b. Mucor

85. Resurgent Malaria is due to AE
a. Drug resistant in host
b. Drug resistant in parasite
c. Antgenic variation in parasite
d. Nf

86. SCRUB typhus AE
a. Caused by Tsugumushi
b. Tetracycline TOC
d. Mite is host

87. Chlamydia in pregnancy
a. Tetracycline
b. Doxy
c. Erthyrmycin
d. Penicillin
e. D

88. MC genital ulcer in HIV
a. Chlamydia
b. Herpes
c. Syphilis
d. Candida

89. Penicillin bindin protein all EXCEPT
a. It is mechanism for resistant for Only for gram +ve organism
b. PBP essential for cell wall synthesis
c. PBP is constituent of cell wall
d. PBP is carboxypeptidases & transpeptidases

90. Staph aureus ture AE Pan/180
a. 30% are helthy nasal carrier
b. MEthicillin resistant is due to chromosomal mediated
c. Epidermolysin for TSS is a superantigen/ Stap erythrotosxin A ia Super antigen
d. MCC of infection is cross infection

91. Chlamydia Culture
a. Yolk sca
b. Allatoin amniotic
c. Amniotc cavity

92. Dry cough for 2 weeks, tongue with white patch
a. Invasive candidiasis
b. Histoplasmosis
d. Dj

93. vibrio EI-TOR true all except
a. Humans are only reservoir
b. survives boiling for 30s
c. toxin act other than int tissue
d-human is the only resorvoir


94. NPCB strategy for screening of diabetic retinopathy..
a. opportunistic screening
b. high risk screening
c. eye examining by PHC medical Officer & diabetologistope with opthalmosc
d. mass screening

95. asha is posted at the – P379
a. village level
b. phc
c. community health centre
d. sub centre

96. to eradicate by 2015-
a. filariasis
b. malaria,
c. tb,..

97. True about Tuberculosis incidence AE
a. India incidence is 1.7%
b. 1 % is equivalent with 75 cases
c. a-currently 1.7%
b-denotes infection prevailing beyond control measures
c-1% = 75 cases

[snip] . Z score
a. Used in bimodal
b. Ordinal
c. Chi square
d. t

99. Red cross AE
a. Symbol contain two vertical / horizontal crosses with equal
b. Can be used all UNO member
c. Punisable by Indian law 1960
d. Permission of Indian Govt require for use

100. 40 casees detected, true negative [snip], total 9920 not detected by test, Incidence
a. 33%
b. 50%
c. S
d. S

101. Movement in socioeconomic level is
a. Social equality
b. Socioecoomic upliftment
c. Social mobility
d. kd

102. Janni suraksha Jojna JSy full form

103. MMR is True AE
a. Denominator is abortion, LB, Still birth
b. Rate or ratio

104. one of the following influence by motivation & associated with emotional valence- 589
a. Practise
b. Belief
c. Attitude
d. Knowledge

105. Not a not a synthetic pYRETHRUM extract
a. Permethrim
b. DDT

106. Perinatal mortality includes true is
a. Still birth + death within 7 days

107. IMNCI defers from IMCI by all EXCEPT P 387
a. 0-7 days age gr included
b. It included malaria & anemia
c. Give more time for sick infant
d. Not focussed on single disease, it is genralized

108. provison of primary health care delivery
a. Alma ATTA
b. Bhore committee
c. Srivastava
d. Sh National federation of

109. PHCare include AE
a. Parovison of essential drug
b. Cost eeffectiveness
c. Community participation
d. Helath education

110. Latest trend in health acre
a. Community partipicaipation
b. Qualitative inquiry
c. Equitable distribution
d. PHC

111. Highest level of community participation is measured
a. Based on felt need of people
b. They plan & decide their own action
c. Provide resources for programme
d. Cooperation with workers

112. In a population of community on 1st june is 1,65,000. 22 new cases of Tb is detected till 1st june starting from the yr. Total 220 ases reported during that yr. Calculate the incidence per 10 lac population
a. 133
b. 13/10 lac
c. 100/lac
d. 266/lac


113. A pt with tremor , increased salivation, black blue line on gum, disturb personality
a. Mercury poisoning
b. dk

114. Aconite poisoning
a. Increased BP
b. Tingling sensation all over body
c. Hypersalivation

115. Death of married women within 3 years of marriage, autopsy done under, Exhumation sec 176
a. IPC 304
b. IPC 307
c. CRPC 174
d. CRPC 176

116. Used in NARCO test
a. Scoplamine HCL
b. Atropine
c. Opium
d. Phenobarb

117. Primary impact injuries are located at
a. Chest
b. Abdomen
c. Legs
d. Head

118. Which leaves a visible mark in pathway si that a person can see
a. Tandem
b. Tracer
c. Dumdum
d. Incendiary

119. Light flashes AE
a. Compression of air infront of travelling wave
b. Direct impact of electric
c. Heated air surrounding the lightening current


120. Pt with ataxia, urinary incontinence & dementia
a. Normal pressure hydrocephalus
b. Multie system atrophy
c. Alzheimer disease

121. A female with dysphagia since 2 month mostly for solid, non progressive, dilatation at esophageal lower end
a. Achalsia
b. Peptic stricture
c. Ca esophagus
d. Ca fundus gastric

122. A truck driver with patchy lung lesion, non productive cough, agent
a. Pneumocystits
b. Tuberculosis

123. Hyperglycemia associated with
a. Multiple myeloma
b. Ewing sarcoma
c. OSteosarcoma
d. Chondroblstoma

124. Site for MND
a. AHC
b. PEriheral NMJ

125. hypoechoic lesions in spleen with fever for 3wks-
a. cmv/
b. toxo/
c. salmonella/
d. Lymphoma

126. Vit K asso wt cloting factor-
a. IX, X

127. A 13 yr girl with fatigue MCV 70, MCh 22, RDW 28
a. IDA
b. Thalassemia
c. Sideroblastic anemia
d. Dk

128. Not associated with Thymoma
b. MG
c. Polymyoistis
d. Hypogammaglobinemia

129. A pt with PCO2 30, pO2 102, pH 7.5, which type of compensation is this( because in metabolic alkalosis, compensation done by CO2 & it will be retained inroder to compenstae alkalosis)
a. REsp alkalosis
b. Met alkalsois
c. REsp acidosis
d. Met acidosis

130. Sphingomyelin
a. NeimenPick disease
b. Dj
c. dj

131. Criteria for Polycythemia ver
a. absentd Erythropoietin

132. KF ring
a. Wilson

133. True about Wilson, disease
a. Low serum ceruloplasmin & urinary copper excretion

134. Accelerated idioventricular Rhythm
a. AV node lesion
b. Ventricular proarrhythmias
c. Digitalis
d. Dk

135. A pt with XR with fibroblast & Plaque
a. NON specific interstitial fibrosis

136. Secondary amenorrhea with hypogonadism—
a. Sheehan syndrome

137. Hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism associated with in male
a. Viral orchitis
b. Klinefelter syndrome
c. Kallman syndrome

138. Cherry red spot AE
a. Nieman pick
b. GM1 gangliosidosis
c. Tay Sach disease
d. Gaucher’s disease

139. Brwon tumor-
a. Hyperparathyroidism

140. Pzrimary Gouty arthritis NOT TRUE
a. 90% cases are due to overproduction rather than under secretion
b. Uric acid level is normal in acute attack of gouty arthritis
c. Common male more than female

141. GOUT is a disorder of
a. Purine metabolis
b. Pyrimidine
c. Dk

142. Boy with seizure BP 200/140 mmHg, Femoral pulse not palpable, Likely diagnosis
a. Takayasu’s aortoarterits
b. Renal parenchymal disease
d. Firbomuscular dysplasia

143. Pathogenesis of ll of the following is Granulomatosis EXCEPT
a. WG
b. Buerger’s disease
c. Takayasu’s disease

144. MCC of abd aorta aneurysm
a. Atherosclerosis

145. Past H/O APL
a. Start low dose aspirin with LMWH

146. BECK’s traid seen in
a. Constrctive pericarditis
b. Cardiac temponade

147. GISt TOC-
a. Imatinib

148. GIST marker
a. CD117

149. Bence jones protein seen in which Heavy chain disease- H17th 707
a. Gamma heavy chain
b. Alfa heavy chain
c. Meu Heavy chain
d. Beta heavy chain

150. A 20 yr old man with HBs Ag +ve, HbeAg –ve, SGOT, SGPT raised 5 times, HBV DNA 1000
a. Wild type HBV
b. Surface mutant HBV
c. preCore mutant HBV
d. sra

151. A 25 yr male with Hbs Ag +ve, other test are unremakbable diagnosis
a. Inactive HBV carrier
b. Inactive HBv infection
c. Acute infection active liver disease
d. Chronic HBV infection

a. Albuminocytological dissociation
b. Ascending paralysis
c. Sensory
d. Flaccidity

153. Lesion in lateral cerebellum EXCEPT
a. Resting tremor

154. Pancreatitis
a. Diadanosine

155. 13 yr female with hypertension no other sign
a. Chr Gn

156. Grey patches on back with MR-
a. Tuberous cslerosis

157. Paraganglioma associated with
a. Dense granules

158. Adrenal Adenoma radiological association Repeat
a. Slow wash out

159. Meningococcal eningitis allergic to beta lactam- H912
a. Chloramphenicol
b. Meropenem
c. cipro
d. Teicoplanin

160. TRIENTIEN AE- H2451
a. More potent than penicllamine, Orally absorbed
b. Alternative to penicillamine in non tolerant
c. Not given with iron in 2 hours of ingestion
d. Cause iron def anemia which is reversible with oral iron supplement

161. VZ remain latent in
a. Trigeminal ganglia
b. Microglia
c. T cell
d. B cell

162. Lung carcinoma AE
a. 70% Squamous cell carcinoma

163. A pt hemophilia, how you will dtect that it is passing in child
a. Rt PCR
b. Linkage analysis
c. Microarray
d. Cytometry

164. Burkitt
a. 8:14 ,

165. t(2: 11 q 24 seen in
a. T cell ALL
b. Burkitt Mature B
c. Pre B cell ALL
d. AML

166. A pt hypoglycaemia with hepatomegaly, BSL not increasing even after epinephrine, diag
a. Von Gierk disease

167. Protective mutation for sickle cell
a. Malaria

168. Low calcium & high Phosphate
a. Low PTh
b. High PTH
c. sdj

169. Plasmphresis is Not done
a. Acute Polymyositis
b. Cholinergic crisis
c. AIDp
d. MG

170. NOT a Feature of PSeudohypoparhyroidism
a. Low level PTH
b. Peripheral resistance to PTH
c. Calcium level are low, PO4 is high
d. Associated with Albright SOteodystrophy

171. Correct for Hyponatremia SIADH
a. NSAID increases the potency of vasopressin, causes vasodilation
b. SIADH Euovolemic hyponatremia
c. Cause euvolemic dehydration
d. Dj

172. Most friable vegetation
a. Vegetation – Infective endocarditis
b. Libman scah
c. Rheumatic hear disease
d. Rheumatoid

173. Following causes Biliary obstruction
a. Giardia
b. Strongloides
c. Ancylostoma
d. Chlorenchis

174. Mass prophylaxsis in endemic area
a. YAW
b. Leprosy
c. Trachoma
d. Filaria

175. A female with FEV >90, FEV1/FEC 9286, progressive breathlessness, 6 month histroy
a. Primary hypoventilation
c. Anoxia
d. Mitral stenosis

176. Unconjugated bilirubinemia, increased excretion of urobilinogen AE
a. G6 PD
b. HEmolytic anemia
c. HS
d. Biliary cirrhosis

177. Pt with ITP, clottin factor should be given at- Repeat
a. After ligation of splenic artery

178. FEemale with click on ausculataion, Myomatous degeneration – REpeat
a. MVP

179. Nuchal transluceny at 14 weeks Hypoechoic shadow –
a. Down syndrome

180. 3rd heart sound seen in
a. ASD
b. Constrictive pericarditis
c. Rapid filling during ventricular systole
d. AS

181. Urea/creatinne ratio was 1:20, this isolated rise in cratinine wil be found in all EXCEPT
a. Post partum RF
b. Pre renal failure
c. Rhabdomyolysis
d. Ureteric stone

182. prerenal renal will have AE
a. Fractional excretion <1
b. Urinary osmolality >500
c. Urnaru Na excretion >40
d. Urine flow not increased on giving dose of diuretics

183. One of the following doesnot occur in articular cartilage in old age
a. Water content decreases
b. Proteoglycan content decreases
c. Proteoglycan synthesis decreases
d. Proteoglycan degradation increases


184. Klippel Flail syndrome AE AI2005
a. Short neck
b. Low hair line
c. Limited neck movement
d. Elevated scapula

185. child with runny nose since 6 mth, fever, proptosis, opaque ethamoid, leucocytosis, hb normal no growth on culture, u/l Nasal discharge, next best
a. Blood culture
b. CT orbit
c. Repeat culture of conjuctival secretion
d. Urine culture

186. non immune hydrops
a. CMV
c. HPV
d. HBV

187. regarding fanconi anaemia wrong statement-is
a. AD
b. Bone marrow show atrophy
c. Usually normocytic/macrocytic anemia
d. j

188. Predisposition to develop epilepsy in later life after febrile convulsionEXCEPT
a. Complex febrile seizure
b. Age
c. Family History
d. Develop mental delay

189. In pediatric age gr recuurent CSF leak organism causing meningitis
a. Meningococci
b. Strept Pneumonia
c. H I
d. E Coli

190. In SCURVY bone affects by
a. Decreae mineralization of bone
b. Less formation of bone matrix

191. Ethosuximide used in
a. DOC is Absence seizure

192. Boy with weakness in Lower limb, Calf hypertrophy, Positive Gower sign CPK 10,000, diagnosis
a. DMD
b. SMA

193. MCC of meningoencephalitis in children (pg nelson 2044)
a. Mumps
b. Arbovirus
c. Herpes
d. Enterovirus

194. Frontotemporal yound adult male with fiocal seizure, ASM, with MRI fronto & temporal lobe
a. HSV
b. TB meningitis
c. MEnigococcal


195. While lacy lesion in oral cavity
a. Lichen planus

196. Treatment of erythematous rash in pregnant female- Repeat
a. Corticosteroid
b. Iostretenoin
c. MTX
d. Psoralen with PUVA

197. Child with HO infantile spasm, Hypopigemented macule on back, delayed mile stone
a. Tuberous cslerosis
b. NF
c. Sturge weber


198. Man thinks wife having relation with his boss & people around him talk bad about him, & no other finding, pt after repeated counselling by brother, he does not accept the fact, NO defect of affect
a. persistent delusion disorder
b. schizophrenia
c. paranoid personality disorder
d. acute and transient psychotic disorder

199. Lady with sadness & NO H/O hopelessness, Occasional palpitation, loss of apetite, Insomnia, no precipitating event of life,
a. GAD
b. Mixed anxiety depression
c. Adjustment disorder
d. Mild depressive episode

200. Not a cognitive dysfunction
a. Overgeneralization

201. What you will not do in behavioural therapy
a. Punishment
b. Exposure
c. Behaviour modification
d. dj

202. Aperson with belief that he had done committed so many sins, after counselling by wife & friends, & with guru , he is not listening, 65 yr age, planning sucide but not not attempted, t/t
a. Antipsychotic + Anti depressant
b. Anti depressant with cognitive behavioural therapy
c. Guidance & recounselling with guru + Anti depressant
d. Anti depressant

203. Alcohol paronia is
a. Fixed delusion
b. Impulse disorder
c. Hallucination
d. kf


204. Intubation done in apt, High Etco2, increased airway pressure with high BP, BL decrease breath sound
a. Fentanyl induced chest wall rigidity
b. Bronchospasm
c. Oesophageal intubatiom
d. Endobraonchial intubation on right side

205. A ldy on anesthesia with fenatnyl, nitrous & PAncuronium, suddenly develops, gasping , shallow breathening, ET Co2 increased
a. Incomplete reversible of pancuronium

206. A young intubated immediately developsi sudden rise in BP, excessive movement
a. Intubation in early stage

207. Sch seen AE
a. Train of 4 phenomenon
b. TOP greater than point 4
c. Fade phenomenon

208. Liver disease Muscle relaxant of choice
a. Atracurium


209. Hot water bottles to relieve intestinal spasm act by
a. Cholinergic receptor inhibition
b. Adrenergic receptor inhibition
c. Cold receptor
d. Peritoneal sensory supply

210. MC site for urethral carcinoma
a. Urtehral ext meatus

211. Lord placation is for
a. Hydrocele

212. Time of surgery in undescended Testis
a. 12 month
b. 24 month
c. 6 month
d. Just after birth

213. 27 yra patient presenting to ER after 6 hrs of RTA ..hemodynamically stable.FAST POSITIVE, CECT shows leak of contrast from spleen..and grade 3 laceration in spleen..what is treatment ?
a. splenectomy
b. splenorraphy
c. splenic artery embolisation
d. conservative

214. a patient with stab injury abdomen.FAST positive. CECT shows a 2 cm left liver lobe laceration..hemodynamicaly stable.laproscopy was planned..the PO2 of patient suddenly dropped after producing pneumoperitoneum..likely cause?
a. air embolism through splenic artery
b. diaphragmatic rent, Peumothorax

215. Orthoptic liver trasnpalnt,- which is the best way to get bile drainage in donor liver?? – H1986/ BL 1426
a. donor bile duct with reciepient bile duct or Roux en Y choleduchola jujenostomy
b. donor bile duct with duodenum of reciepient
c. donor bile duct with jejunum of reciepient
d. external drainage.... for few days follwed by Choleduchol jujenostomy

216. stone hard to break
a. ca oxalate monohydrate
b. ca oxalate dehydrate
c. struvite
d. uric acid

217. TRISS stands for\TRAUMA INJURY Severity score- SCh 179
a. GCS
b. GCS + BP+ RR
c. RTS + ISS
d. RTS

218. A child with pain in left flank, RT kidney hydronephrosis , 10mm cortical thick ness, Filtration fraction is is 19% of normal
a. Nephrectomy
b. Pyeloplasty
c. External drainage
d. Endopyelostomy

219. Stone in renal pelvis Bilaterally with anuria, urea220 & creatinine 14increased treatment at this point, Ph 7.23
a. Hemodialysis
b. J stent drainage
c. Lithotripsy

220. PCNL done bilaterally at site of upper r[part11th rib, MC complication I this case
a. Hydrothorax
b. Hematuria
c. Damage to colon
d. Remnants fragments

221. Bsimuth- Strasburg classification for cystic duct blow out
a. Type A
b. Type B
c. Type C
d. Type D

222. Scale used specifically for SAH
a. GCS
b. Hess & Hunt

223. ANNULAR pancreas treatment
a. Division of pancreas
b. Duodenoduedenostomy
c. Dudenojujenostomy

224. Adult with hemetemesis, On endoscopy ulcer in posterior wall of antrum, 5cm lesion in tail of pancreas, diagnosis on hostopathology GIST was made, Laprotomy done lesion was found on posterior wall os stomach infiltrating tail of pancreas, Mx
a. Closure of abdomen
b. Enetrcetomy, Removal of tail of pancreas with partial gastrectomy
c. whipple
d. REclosure of abdoem

225. Apt with hypoglycaemic episodes BSL <40, OE Insulinoma was found in head of pancrease 8mm
a. Streptozocin followed by resection SCh 1275
b. Whipple iop
c. Enucleation
d. Pancreatic resection

226. A pt with recurrent hypoglycaemia with seizures, cpeptide level is 6 ( 1-2 is normal, BSL 20-30, diagnosis
a. Insulinoma
b. Sulphonylurea excess
c. Accidental Injection of insulin
d. Sadkl

227. A pt with occult GI bleed, anemia, weakness, Next step
a. Colonoscopy
b. Barummeal
c. Barium enema

228. achild with Volvulus with suspected perforation
a. XR
b. Barium enema
c. Sigmoidoscopy
d. Barium meal follow through

229. Non mismatch blood transfusion is given, what immediate investigation
a. Indirect coomb test
b. DCT
c. Antibody pt serum
d. Ab in donor serum

230. Heart in carcinoid syndrome
a. Calcification TV
b. Intimal fibrosis of right Ventricel TV, Pul valve
c. Thickening of Rv

231. True about CARCINOID AE see Bailey
a. 60% occur in ileum & appendix
b. Rectum rarely involve
c. 5 yr survival is >60%
d. Females are more affected

232. Electron microscopy is diagnostic im
a. Alport
b. Goodpasture
c. Chur strauss
d. WG

233. Cyst in Spleen MC
a. Hydatid custr
b. PSeudocyst
c. Lymphagioma

234. Restrictive operation AE
a. Restricetd band gastropathy
b. Switch operation
c. Bypass operation
d. Adjustable band

235. Recatal prolaspe reducible TOC- BL 1225
a. REctpexy children
b. DElomere op complete prolpase
c. Good sall operation
d. Anterior resection

236. RTA , RR 30 HR 110, level of lesion in quadriparesis, sensory level upper sternum
a. C1 C2
b. C5 C6
c. T3 T4
d. medulla

237. CSF leak all except
a. MC site Ethamoidal [bleep]
b. Beta transferring is specific
c. MRI GD T1 used for diagnsosi
d. Fluorescin Dye used in intrathecally for diagnosis

238. 1st surgery for uretric replacemt done by
a. Hardy
b. Koyonessy
c. Higgin


239. Median nerve lesion causes AE
a. Thenar atrophy
b. Adductur pollicies

240. Synovial sarcoma AE- 1323 robbins
a. Originate in synovium, unclear
b. Seen <50 yrs
c. Occurs in extraarticular site more often
d. Seen in site such as knee & foot

241. Lift off test
a. Supraspinatus
b. Infraspinatus
c. Teres minor
d. Subsacpularis

242. Congenital Scoliosis is preogressivemc associated with AE
a. HEmivertebrae
b. Wedge vertebrae
c. Intersegmental bar lateral on one side
d. Block vertebrae

243. After hip surgery , pt develops sudden breathless, hemodynamic collapse, reason
a. Embolism

244. Medial meniscus AE
a. It is more mobile
b. Lateral cover more of tibia

245. mETal on metal articulation is Not done in
a. Old age
b. Young female
c. Inflammatory arthritis
d. Revision surgery

Obs &Gyne

246. Methyldopa used in
a. PIH

247. Best for female fertility hormonal assay during menstrual cycle
a. Fern test
b. Sex hormone study
c. Vaginal cytology
d. Spinbarkiett

248. In human which of the following is not associated ith menstrual cycle
a. Change in steroid level
b. Endometrial gland changes
c. Estrus
d. Vaginal cytology

249. A 40 yr old woman presenting with CIN III on pap smear..treatment of choice?
a. hysterectomy
b. colposcopy with LEEP
c. trahelectomy
d. conization

250. pregnancy can b continued in-
a. wpw syn,
b. eisenmengers,
c. primary pul ht

251. r hiv pregnancy delivery- all reduces the rsik except
a. no ergotamine,
b. nevirapine administration intrapartum
c. elective caes section,..
d. Antenatal AZT

252. Primary amenorrhea with normal external genitilia
a. RKH syndrome
b. Turner syndrome
c. Noonan syndrome

253. Secondary amenorrhea in case of pervious abortion, with low gonadotrophins
a. Piruitary failure
b. Ovarian failure
d. Uterine synechiae

254. A pt with HO amenorrhea after abortion, FSh level 6 mIU, diagnosis (1-8 Normal)
a. Uetrine synechia
b. Sec pregnancy
c. Ptuitary failure seehan syndrome
d. Ovarian failure

255. Polyhydramnios seen in
a. PUV
b. Cleft palate
c. Congenital disphragmatic hernia
d. Exstrophy epispadias complex

256. Leaky discharge at 34 wek of pregnancy
a. Listeria
b. CMV

257. MC associated with Malignancy caused by HPVCA CX
a. HPV16
b. HPV 18
c. HPV 31
d. HPV 33

258. Sentinel biopsy most useful in which gyveoclogical
a. Ca Endo
b. CaCX
c. Ca Vulva
d. Ca Bereast

259. VVF most useful investigation in a case of VVF
a. 3 swab test
b. Urine culture
c. Cystoscopy

260. Intrahepatic cholestasis in pregnancy Toc- 291 Dutta
a. Cholestyramine
b. Ursodiol
c. Steroid
d. Antihistaminics

261. Partial mole true AE
a. Triploidy
b. Rarely cause Persistent GTD
c. Can easily diagnose by USG early
d. May present as missed abortion

262. Mulleraain duct & wolfian duct together is impossible with
a. Anti mullerian hormone def
b. FSH receptor mutation
c. Gonadal dysgenesis
d. Mixed ovotestis

263. Conversion of mole into choriocarcinoma is indicate dby AE
a. Pleateau HCG level
b. Sub urethral nodule
c. Abd distension
d. Kds

264. A female 17 yr presents with diarrhea, pain at the time of mesnses & stress, Diarhhea with mucus & no blood, no weight loss, redominat constipation
a. IBD
b. IBS
c. Amebic
d. Endometriosis

265. Druing pregnancy wt gain depends on AE
a. Socioecnomic stautus
b. Pregestation al weight
c. Obesity
d. Ethinicity

266. What is not done in shoulder dystocia
a. Wood
b. Suprpubic preesure
c. Mac Roberston manuever
d. Maursion- Smit-Veil technique

267. What is not done in 3rd stage of labor
a. Ureterotonic oxytocine
b. Gentle massage of uterus
c. Clamping of cord
d. Ergiometrine

268. True about Chornicity
a. Same sex rule out dichorniocity
b. Twin Pick sign in di chorniocity
c. Thick membrane is present in monochorion
d. Best detected after 16 weeks

269. All are commonly associared with polycystic ovary syndrome EXCEPT
a. Ca Ovary
b. Ca Endometrium
c. Insulin resistance
d. Osteoporosis

270. Threatened abortion true all EXCEPT
a. Antibiotics given with intact amniotic membrane
b. d


271. Arden ratio
a. EOG
b. ERG
c. EEG

272. endophthalmitis include all except
a. vitreous
b. sclera
c. uvea
d. retina

273. A person who is wearing contact lens for 1-2 month comes with irritation of left with diagnosis of keratiis, corneal scraping revealed presence of Ps Aeruginos which is Multi drug resistant, what is the cause of resistance
a. By transfer of gene form commensal bacteria of eye
b. Improper contact lens hygiene
c. Frequent & prior use of antibiotics, steroid preparations
d. Biofilm formation

274. In corneal transplant what is true
a. Whole eye is preserved in culture
b. Donor Not taken if age is >60years
c. Specular microscopyAnalysis is used to count the number of corneal endothelial cell

275. Reraction of ptosis results form chewing & cramming condition, pterygoid & retraction of eye lid
a. Marcus jaw winking pheneomenon—

276. Least common condition
a. Macular dstrophy
b. Lattice 1
c. Lattice 2
d. Granular dystrophy

277. Affrent pupillary defect
a. Optic nerve


278. Vestibular schwanoma arises from
a. Superior vestibular
b. Inferior vestibular
c. Cohlear nerve
d. Js

279. Auto acoustic emission arises form M09
a. Inner har cell
b. Outer hair cell
c. Organ of corti
d. Spiral ganglion in vestibule

280. not seen in bronchoscopy- REpeat
a. vocal cords
b. Subcarinal LL

281. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma AE
a. Bimodal distribution
b. Nasopharyngectomy with BL neck dissection
c. IgA antibody to EBV antigen
d. Squamous cell carcinoma is Mc histopatholical finding

282. Sodium Fluoride act in otosclerosis by all these method EXCEPT
a. It act on enzyme for bone degradation
b. It inhibit osteoblast activity
c. Positive schwart sign is indication
d. NaF contraindicated in chronic nephritis

283. Laser used in lAryngeal operation
a. Nd YAG
b. CO2
c. Argon
d. Krypton

284. Doc in Laryngeal stenosis
a. CTX
b. Doxorubicin
c. Adriamycin
d. Mitomycin C

285. Child with Biphasic stridor , Barking cough, , all are ture about case XECEPT- D 347
a. Hypophrayngeal dilaation, subglottic stenosis on XR
b. Involve subglottis most commonly
c. Male is more common than female
d. Antibiotics main stay of treatment

286. All are extrinsic laryngeal membrane EXCEPT
a. Hyoepiglottic
b. Cricothyroid
c. Cricotracheal
d. Cricothracheal

Radiology & RT

287. Egg on side appearance
a. tricuspid atresia with vsd
b. Hypoplastic right ventricle
d. completely TGA

288. Most ionizing radiation
a. alpha
b. beta
c. x ray
d. gamma

289. Difference between X ray and light
a. energy
b. mass of photon
c. type of wave
d. speed

290. a patient present with sudden anuria and renal failure..USG kub is normal. which investigation will give best information?
a. IVP
b. retrograde pyelography
c. anterograde pyelography

291. To get intense dense nephrogram
a. dehydration of pt
b. increase dye concentration
c. Inject the dye rapidly
d. Non ionic

292. what is background radiation.
a. Radiation after disaster
b. Radiation after atom bomb explosion
c. Radiation received by all people everywhere
d. Radiation exposure during radiological investigations

293. CT scan room doors
a. Glass
b. Tungesten
c. Steel
d. Lead

294. Radiotherpay unit== Eqivalence
a. Equivalent dose
b. Absorbed dose
c. Exposure dose

295. Gray Back shunt is

296. STOCHASTIc effect
a. Cancer chances increases with dose
b. Causes erythema & GI toxicity
c. Probability of occurrence is a function of dose
d. Probability of occurrence is a not a function of dose
e. Occur by chance and causes genetic effect/ mutational change

297. Acute flaccid paralysis
a. >60 days surveillance
b. >90 days surveillance

298. vaccant stare 20sec,
a. a-absence seizure

299. Confidence limit

300. Rural Urban divide not seen with?
1 - lung cancer
2 - tb
3 - chronic bronchitis
4 - mental illness

302. pt had left upper limb ischemia which slowly recovered over time
b-ischemic stroke

303. penile shunt

304. health status of children bw 0-5 yrs in community will be adversely affectd by a/e
2.low birth weight
3.maternal hb<11 gm/dl

305. autistic disorder has all except
a- visual impairment

7-cognitive enhancement technique all except
a- consolidation stage
c-6-in standing position venous return affected by a/e?
a-calf mus
c-tendinous fassa
Sad Sad

Last edited by Healer on Tue Jan 17, 2012 1:33 am; edited 1 time in total

To See the hidden content, please make a reply to the post.
Proud to announce new forum address [You must be registered and logged in to see this link.]
<[You must be registered and logged in to see this link.]>

2 Re: All ques of aipg 2010 on Mon Jun 07, 2010 2:13 am


Just Entered
Just Entered
HOW CAN I GET a pdf formsa

3 Re: All ques of aipg 2010 on Wed Jun 30, 2010 4:53 pm


Just Entered
Just Entered

4 Re: All ques of aipg 2010 on Tue Jul 06, 2010 2:29 pm

Just Entered
Just Entered
cn u tell me about aipg cut off

5 hi on Wed Jul 07, 2010 4:09 pm


thank u

6 Re: All ques of aipg 2010 on Sat Sep 04, 2010 10:24 am


Just Entered
Just Entered

7 Re: All ques of aipg 2010 on Sun Sep 12, 2010 3:33 pm



8 Re: All ques of aipg 2010 on Wed Sep 22, 2010 2:39 am


Just Entered
Just Entered

9 Re: All ques of aipg 2010 on Wed Sep 22, 2010 2:40 am


Just Entered
Just Entered

10 Re: All ques of aipg 2010 on Wed Sep 22, 2010 2:48 am


Just Entered
Just Entered
not working

11 Re: All ques of aipg 2010 on Wed Sep 22, 2010 11:36 am


Just Entered
Just Entered

12 Re: All ques of aipg 2010 on Thu Sep 30, 2010 5:23 pm


Just Entered
Just Entered

13 Re: All ques of aipg 2010 on Wed Oct 27, 2010 4:41 pm


Just Entered
Just Entered

14 Re: All ques of aipg 2010 on Mon Nov 01, 2010 3:00 pm


Just Entered
Just Entered

15 answers on Wed Nov 10, 2010 3:52 pm

ason mand

Just Entered
Just Entered

16 answers on Wed Nov 10, 2010 3:55 pm

ason mand

Just Entered
Just Entered
where can i find the answers????

17 Re: All ques of aipg 2010 on Tue Nov 16, 2010 8:44 pm


Just Entered
Just Entered

18 Re: All ques of aipg 2010 on Wed Nov 24, 2010 2:05 pm


Just Entered
Just Entered

19 Re: All ques of aipg 2010 on Fri Dec 10, 2010 5:15 pm

mohammed zuhaib

Just Entered
Just Entered

20 Re: All ques of aipg 2010 on Sun Dec 26, 2010 11:15 pm


Just Entered
Just Entered
thanx a lot

21 Re: All ques of aipg 2010 on Wed Dec 29, 2010 11:24 am


Just Entered
Just Entered

22 Re: All ques of aipg 2010 on Tue Jan 04, 2011 3:25 pm


Just Entered
Just Entered

23 Re: All ques of aipg 2010 on Thu Jan 06, 2011 9:28 pm



24 Re: All ques of aipg 2010 on Fri Mar 04, 2011 3:13 am

Just Entered
Just Entered
Thank you

25 Re: All ques of aipg 2010 on Thu Mar 10, 2011 7:22 pm


Just Entered
Just Entered
how can i see it

Sponsored content

View previous topic View next topic Back to top  Message [Page 1 of 2]

Go to page : 1, 2  Next

Permissions in this forum:
You cannot reply to topics in this forum